Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer:
compound and element
Explanation:
How should the poles of two magnets be placed for them to attract?
Answer:
Opposite poles close together.
Explanation:
When you place the north pole of one magnet near the south pole of another magnet, they are attracted to one another. When you place like poles of two magnets near each other (north to north or south to south), they will repel each other.
Which is a nonrenewable resource? *
cotton
minerals
wool
air
Describe the stages of each type of cell reproduction process from a normal patient whose body cells can repair themselves and normal cell division during the reproductive development of the unborn baby. explain the disadvantages and advantages of each type of cell division. discuss how the patient experiencing problems with the cells repairing from the cut and the child's reproduction development malfunctions can alter haploid and diploid cell development
There are two types of cell reproduction processes: mitosis and meiosis. In mitosis, a cell divides into two identical daughter cells, each with a diploid set of chromosomes. Mitosis occurs during the growth and repair of body tissues.
The advantage of mitosis is that it produces identical cells for tissue repair and growth. The disadvantage is that it does not produce genetic diversity. The advantage of meiosis is that it creates genetic diversity, which increases the chances of producing offspring with favorable traits. The disadvantage is that it requires two rounds of cell division, which increases the risk of genetic errors.
If a patient experiences problems with cell repair, it could affect mitosis and slow down tissue regeneration. If a child's reproductive development malfunctions, it could affect meiosis and result in abnormal chromosome numbers or genetic disorders. Alterations in haploid and diploid cell development can also lead to infertility or developmental abnormalities.
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what would happen if the ras protein, a g-protein, could not break down gtp and reverted to its inactive form?
a. continuous cell division
b. cells would run out of GTP
c. no significant effect
d. phosphorylation cascade would stop
If the ras protein, a G-protein, is unable to break down GTP and reverts to its inactive form, then the phosphorylation cascade would stop. The answer is d. The phosphorylation cascade would stop.
Ras protein is a small G protein. It is a family of small, membrane-bound GTPases that transmit signals within cells.
The proteins get their name from the fact that they bind to guanosine nucleotides, with GTP being the most important. G proteins, which function as molecular switches inside cells, are a type of signaling molecule.
When G proteins bind to guanosine triphosphate (GTP), they become active. When they bind to guanosine diphosphate (GDP), they become inactive.
They bind and hydrolyze GTP, which is a phosphate-containing guanine nucleotide, to regulate the activation of other signaling proteins.
For G proteins to stop working, GTP must be broken down. If the ras protein, a G-protein, cannot break down GTP and reverts to its inactive form, the phosphorylation cascade would stop.
So, it would stop the ras pathway from sending signals, which would stop further cell growth and differentiation.
So, the answer is d. The phosphorylation cascade would stop.
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How long does methamphetamines stay in your system?
Meth is typically detectable in urine for up to 72 hours after the last dose. Because methamphetamine metabolizes to amphetamine, both drugs are likely to show up on a drug test.
The typical detection window for stimulants of the amphetamine type in urine is 3 to 5 days following the last administration.
In heavy, chronic users, this period might be longer; it might be seen in the urine for as long as a week.
Tests on the hair, blood, and oral fluids can also be used to identify meth users. For detecting recent ingestion, blood and oral fluid testing can be more effective and precise than urine testing, but both have shorter detection windows than urine testing. Depending on the type of hair test utilized, meth can be detected up to 90 days after the last use. Clinical or workplace testing typically do not use it because they are more appropriate for forensic or research study testing.
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Which of the following adaptations found in animals in deciduous forests protects against predators? a. Fat storage b. Migration c. Hibernation d. Camouflage.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer:
d i just took the test
Explanation:
Which of the following is not a phenotype?
A heterozygous gray (two genes are involved) cat is crossed with a cat that is heterozygous for these two genes. What is the probability of a black kitten? What is a possible genotype of a black kitten? thanks
Answer:50% chance, and the genotype would be heterozygous
Explanation:
G=gray r=black
G r
G GG Gr
r Gr rr
members of two separate species mate, but the sperm cell is not capable of penetrating the egg. this would be due to what is known as:
The inability of a sperm cell from one species to penetrate the egg of another species is known as Gametic isolation.
What is Gametic isolation?Gametic isolation is known to occurs when sperm from one species cannot fertilize the eggs of another species.
It is noted that in many species, the sperm cells and eggs have special proteins on their surfaces that must bind together for fertilization to occur.
If the proteins do not match due to species differences, the sperm cannot penetrate the egg, preventing fertilization.
This serves to maintain the separation of species and prevent the production of hybrid offspring that may not be viable or fertile.
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Describe in detail three factors that influence population growth.
Answer:
No competition.
No predators.
And a big environment.
Explanation:
If I need to give more detail, tell me and I will.
write down the properties of soild, liquid and gas
Answer:
In solids, particles have greater amount of attractive forces, they have fixed shapes and less energy.
In liquids, particles have weak forces of attraction b\w them, they take the shape of their container and have more energy. The often slide pass each other.
In gases, particles have almost no amount of attractive forces, they have no fixed shape and much more energy. They can move freely .
what type of spider is this and how deadly is it 1/10?
In my opinion that would be a wolf spider. I will check online to see for you :)
Wolf spiders deadly:3/10
Cant hurt humans
Causes rash or itching
Potato crops are grown for their carbohydrate content.
Describe how you could safely test the two species of potato to compare their carbohydrate content.
test for starch
test for reducing sugars
8 mark question - IGCSE
Answer:
I hope this helps a little bit.
Approximately once in every _____ births, and infant is born with 45, 47, or even 48 or 49 chromosomes instead of the usual 46.
An newborn is born with 45, 47, 48, or even 49 chromosomes instead of the typical 46 chromosomes approximately once every 166 births.
What Does It Mean When a Baby Is Born With an Extra Chromosome?
Pregnancy is a vulnerable time when your unborn child may be exposed to a number of illnesses. However, several anatomical anomalies that are typically harmful and can lead to difficulties in babies may be present in infants with additional chromosomes.
A human cell contains 46 chromosomes, 23 of which are inherited from each parent. However, in some circumstances, either parent's chromosomes may have been added to or deleted from the growing fetus.
If you are unaware of this genetic phenomena and are interested in learning more, read this post to learn about the potential origins, illnesses, symptoms, and other details about extra chromosomes in newborns.
What Does It Mean When a Baby Is Born With an Extra Chromosome?
Genes are strung like beads along chromosomes, which are threadlike structures. The 47th chromosome in human cells is an additional chromosome. As a result, a child with an additional chromosome will have 23 pairs of chromosomes overall (one from the mother and two from the father or vice versa). Trisomy, which stands for "three bodies," is the term used to describe this disorder.
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1. define the terms peristalsis and segmentation. where do each of these processes occur in the gastrointestinal tract during the digestive process?
Peristalsis and segmentation are processes that occur in the gastrointestinal tract during the digestive process.
Let's explore each process in detail:Peristalsis: Peristalsis is the process by which food is propelled through the digestive tract. In this process, muscular contractions occur in the walls of the gastrointestinal tract, pushing food forward from one segment of the digestive system to the next. Segmentation: Segmentation is the process by which food is mixed and broken down into smaller pieces in the digestive tract. In this process, muscular contractions occur in the walls of the gastrointestinal tract, causing the food to be mixed and churned in the stomach and small intestine. Peristalsis occurs throughout the digestive tract, starting from the esophagus and continuing all the way through to the anus. Segmentation primarily occurs in the stomach and small intestine, where it helps to mix food with digestive enzymes and break it down into smaller pieces that can be more easily absorbed by the body.
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Based on scientific evidence, replacing saturated fat with __________ fats significantly reduce total and LDL cholesterol in the blood. a. complex carbohydrates
b. vitamin-mineral complex
c. high-quality protein
d. polyunsaturated fats
Answer:
Polyunsaturated fats
Explanation:
Based on scientific evidence, replacing saturated fat with polyunsaturated fats significantly reduces total and LDL cholesterol in the blood, which is present in Option D, and the polyunsaturated fats are found in foods like fatty fish, nuts, and seeds.
What are polyunsaturated fats?It is a type of unsaturated fat that contains more than one double bond, when these fats are used to replace saturated fats in the diet, they can help lower total and LDL cholesterol levels in the blood and reduce the level of cardiac diseases, blood vessel-related diseases, etc, polyunsaturated fats contain omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids, which have been found to have heart-protective effects.
Hence, replacing saturated fat with polyunsaturated fats significantly reduces total and LDL cholesterol in the blood, which is present in Option D.
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Write a paragraph on how Blood Glucose goes with Negative Feedback
Write a paragraph on how Body Temperature goes with Negative Feedback
Answer:
Here are some explanations from 0nline so if you want rewrite in your own words
hope this helps :))
blood glucose-
"The control of blood sugar (glucose) by insulin is a good example of a negative feedback mechanism. When blood sugar rises, receptors in the body sense a change. In turn, the control center (pancreas) secretes insulin into the blood effectively lowering blood sugar levels."
"If the blood glucose level is too low, the pancreas releases the hormone glucagon. This travels to the liver in the blood and causes the break-down of glycogen into glucose. The glucose enters the blood stream and glucose levels increase back to normal. This is an example of negative feedback."
body temperature-
" Body temperature is regulated by negative feedback. The stimulus is when the body temperature exceeds 37 degrees Celsius, the sensors are the nerve cells with endings in the skin and brain, the control is the temperature regulatory center in the brain, and the effector is the sweat glands throughout the body."
"Body temperature is controlled by the hypothalamus in the brain. If the hypothalamus detects that the body is too hot, the response is that the body begins to sweat to try and reduce the temperature back to the correct level."
"Negative feedback (or balancing feedback) occurs when some function of the output of a system, process, or mechanism is fed back in a manner that tends to reduce the fluctuations in the output, whether caused by changes in the input or by other disturbances."
"Negative feedback brings a system back to its level of normal functioning. Adjustments of blood pressure, metabolism, and body temperature are all negative feedback"
in 2002 it looked like the argentinean government might default on its debt (which eventually it did). the open-economy macroeconomic model predicts that this should have
The open-economy macroeconomic model predicts that a government default on its debt can lead to a decrease in the value of the country's currency and an increase in interest rates.
This can lead to a reduction in investment and economic activity, as well as inflationary pressures.
Specifically for Argentina in 2002, the default led to a sharp depreciation of the peso, high inflation rates, and a contraction in economic activity.
Overall, the consequences of a government default on its debt can be severe, and can have a significant impact on the country's economy. It is important for governments to manage their debt levels and ensure that they have a sustainable fiscal position.
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2. Describe the property of water that is indicated by the data. How is this property explained by the structure of water molecules and the bonds between them? Type your answer here. FIED
Answer:
Water molecules are polar, so they form hydrogen bonds. This gives water unique properties, such as a relatively high boiling point, high specific heat, cohesion, adhesion and density.
What are the two functions of the skeletal system? *
A. Provides stucture and protection
B. Sends and recièves signals throughout the body
C. Obtain nutrients and removes waste produced by the body
D. Regulates body temperature and protects the body from damage.
HELP PLEASE
Answer:
A. provide structure and protection
hope it helps
ASAP please help!!! Please please please please
I'll give you Brainliest!!!!!!
Answer:
See the answer below
Explanation:
From the graph, the concentration of salt solution where the number of burst red blood cells equals the number of intact ones is 0.40 g/100 cm3.
At this concentration, the percentage of burst cells is 50, meaning that the remaining 50% of the cells in the experiment remained intact.
The totality of the concentrations of all the salt solutions used is:
0.30+0.35+0.40+0.45+0.50 = 2 g/100 cm3
Thus, the percentage of salt solution concentration when the number of red blood cells that burst is the same as the number of red blood cells that do not burst equals;
0.40/2 x 100% = 20%
The definition of biological evolution encompasses
Answer:
Biological evolution, simply put, is descent with modification. This definition encompasses small-scale evolution (changes in gene frequency in a population from one generation to the next) and large-scale evolution (the descent of different species from a common ancestor over many generations).
Explanation:
5
How does the burning of fossil fuels negatively impact ecosystems? Select all that apply
A It increases biodiversity in tropical environments
B It creates air pollution and acid rain
с
It causes eutrophication in lakes and ponds
D
It creates nitrogen oxide gases that deplete Earth's protective ozone layer
E
It increases greenhouse gases in the atmosphere cause global climate change
FIt increases the pH of ocean water
The burning of fossil fuels negatively impacts ecosystems in that it creates air pollution and acid rain, produces nitrogen oxide gases that deplete Earth's protective ozone layer, increases greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, and causes global climate change. B, D, and E are the correct options.
What is the burning of fossil fuels?The burning of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, releases a variety of pollutants into the environment. One of the most significant impacts is the release of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere. These compounds can react with water and air to form acid rain, which can have harmful effects on both terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.
Hence, the correct answers are It creates air pollution and acid rain, produces nitrogen oxide gases that deplete Earth's protective ozone layer, increases greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, and causes global climate change. B, D, and E are the correct options.
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Which term accurately describes the following statement
Answer:
where is the statement to answer the question
Answer:
help plzxzuhvfgggugyu
Part D
Some weather maps show a change in surface air pressure. For example, locations with a 0 represent no pressure change over
the past few hours. Locations with a positive value (+) show an increase in pressure, and those with a negative value (-) show a
decrease in pressure. Cold air systems are often located in areas where the pressure change is the greatest, because cold air is
denser than warm air...
? Question
This map shows the change in surface pressure in a three-hour time span across the United States. The units are rounded
to the nearest millibar. Follow the steps to complete the drawing.
Step 1. Cold Front. Draw a line defining a cold air system where the surface pressure change is +4 millibars. Estimate the
locations, if necessary. Shade the region blue. This color indicates a cold front.
Step 2. Warm Front. Draw a line defining a warm air system where the surface pressure change is -4 millibars. Shade the
region red. This color indicates a warm front.
Very windy conditions occur when isobars are close together; calmer conditions occur when they are farther apart. Always in a clockwise orientation, the wind blows around highs.
Why do close isobars matter?As seen on the left-hand side of the above image, isobars, usually lines of equal pressure, are the lines surrounding high and low tension on a weather map. The wind speed increases when isobars are near together and decreases when they are farther apart.
Isobars move with the wind in what directions?The wind is blowing in a downward direction, crossing the isobars. Surface friction causes this to happen. Because a decreasing wind is less affected by Coriolis, friction slows the wind, which prevents the pressure gradient pressure and coriolis force from being equal.
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Answer:
not sure if its right but here's what I put, hope this can help someone!
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT a harmful side effect caused by erosion?
Question 3 options:
A)
loss of farmland
B)
dust storms
C)
landscape changes
D)
earthquakes
Answer:
the answer is D) earthquakes
Explanation:
soil erosion involves taking away of the top layer of the soil.... as for earthquakes.. these are caused by tilting and sliding of tectonic plates of which soil erosion takes no place in causing such actions
Answer:
Option D) Earthquakes.
Is your answer.
Explanation:
Hope you have a great day.
List some animals affected by soda cans and plastic bottles
Answer:
turtles, fishes, birds, whales, cats, dogs, really any animal can be affected
Explanation:
(any animal in the ocean) mark as brainliest plz
which compound would not form as a result of carbons interactions with other elements
CO2 AND CH4 are both common
Explain the difference between the Needham experiment and the Spallanzani experiment in terms of
their methods, results, and conclusions.
The Needham experiment was replicated in the Spallanzani experiment, albeit with a few significant modifications.
In an experiment, John Needham in England filled a bottle with broth, cooked it to kill any organisms within, and then sealed it. Days later, he revealed that there was life in the broth and said that it had been generated spontaneously, concluding that this DOES happen. In actuality, his experiment was defective and caused the flasks to become contaminated.By extending the boiling time and securing the flasks from air and germs, Spallanzani altered Needham's experiment. As a result of his failure to spot any growths inside the flasks, he came to the conclusion that spontaneous generation was not feasible.By adding broth to two different bottles, heating the broth in both bottles, and then closing one bottle while leaving the other open, Spallanzani conducted his own experiment. The unsealed bottle was swarming with tiny living things a few days later, which he could see more clearly with the recently created microscope. No evidence of life could be seen in the sealed bottle. This effectively eliminated the possibility of spontaneous generation. Because oxygen was believed to be required for spontaneous generation, experts of the day noticed that Spallanzani had deprived the sealed bottle of air. Because of this, even if his experiment was successful, his arguments were refuted effectively.Learn more about the Needham experiment with the help of the given link:
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Which part of an atom is mostly empty space? nucleus proton cloud electron cloud neutron.
YALL HELP PLEASE
Answer:
cloud electron