a patient is being discharged from the hospital after being diagnosed with lupus erythematosus. the patient is advised to follow up with what to monitor his condition?

Answers

Answer 1

The production of autoantibodies against nucleic acids and other self-components is a pathologic mechanism that supports systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

What is Lupus erythematosus ?

SLE, or systemic lupus erythematosus, is the most prevalent form of lupus. SLE is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks its own tissues, leading to extensive tissue damage and inflammation in the organs that are afflicted. It can have an impact on blood vessels, the brain, the lungs, the skin, and the joints.

It's possible that when individuals discuss lupus, they're referring to its most prevalent type, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). There are actually four different types. To learn more about each of them, click or scroll down: Lupus subtypes include SLE, cutaneous, drug-induced, and neonatal forms.

Your doctor will search for rashes and other troubling symptoms. tests on blood and urine. The antinuclear antibody (ANA) test can determine whether your immune system produces lupus autoantibodies more frequently than normal.

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Related Questions

The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease is prescribed atorvastatin, an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. Which statement by the client warrants the nurse notifying the health-care provider?
1. "I really haven't changed my diet, but I am taking my medication every day."
2. "I am feeling pretty good except I am having muscle pain all over my body."
3. "I am swimming at the local pool about three times a week for 30 minutes"
4. "I am taking this medication first thing in the morning with a bowl of oatmeal."

Answers

The statement by the client that warrants the nurse notifying the healthcare provider is: 2. "I am feeling pretty good except I am having muscle pain all over my body."

Muscle pain is a potential side effect of atorvastatin, and it can indicate a condition called myopathy. Myopathy is characterized by muscle symptoms such as pain, weakness, or tenderness. In rare cases, myopathy can progress to a more severe condition called rhabdomyolysis, which involves the breakdown of muscle tissue and can lead to kidney damage.

Therefore, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider about the client's muscle pain as it could be a sign of a serious adverse reaction. The healthcare provider will assess the severity of the symptoms, evaluate the need for any diagnostic tests or dosage adjustments, and determine the most appropriate course of action for the client.

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the client who is confined to bed in the recumbent position has gained 5 lb in the past 24 hours. in which area does the nurse assess skin turgor for accurate determination of dependent edema

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C. Sacrum  area does the nurse assess skin turgor for accurate determination of dependent edema

Edema is a condition in which fluid accumulates in the body's tissues, leading to swelling. It can occur in any part of the body, including the arms, legs, ankles, and feet. Edema can be caused by a variety of factors, such as heart, liver or kidney problems, hormonal imbalances, or certain medications. It can also be a side effect of surgery or radiation therapy. Symptoms of edema may include tenderness, pain, and skin discoloration. Treatment depends on the underlying cause of the swelling and may include medication, lifestyle changes, or compression stockings. If left untreated, edema can lead to serious health problems, such as skin infections, blood clots, or difficulty breathing.

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The full question was here:

The client who is confined to bed in the recumbent position has gained 5 lb (2.3 kg) in the past 24 hours. In which area does the nurse assess skin turgor for accurate determination of dependent edema?

A Foot and ankle

B. Forehead

C. Sacrum

D. Chest

Given a 20% w/v solution of chlorhexidine gluconate, what volume is required to make 400 mL of a 2% w/v solution?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

A 2% w/v solution contains 2 g in 100 mL, or 8 g in 400 mL.

why thalidomide works on morning sickness while its a sedative?

Answers

Answer:

It is an immunomodulatory medication and works by a number of ... was promoted for anxiety, trouble sleeping, "tension", and morning sickness. It was sedative cause it eased the pain or nausea for pregnant women.

Explanation: That's why

A number of chemical treatments cause microtubules to fall apart. Colchicine is one such drug. What would happen if a dividing cell was treated with colchicine?.

Answers

A number of chemical treatments cause microtubules to fall apart. Colchicine is one such drug. If a dividing cell was treated with colchicine, chromosomes would not separate.

Microtubules are important structures present in the cytoskeleton of all eukaryotic organisms. These structures, microtubules, are involved in various functions such as the movement of molecules inside the cell, cell motility etc. However, the major function of microtubules is the formation of the mitotic spindles during the process of cell division.

These mitotic spindles are associated with the proper segregation of chromosomes to each daughter cell as they pull apart the sister chromosomes during cell division.

If a cell is treated with colchicine at the time of cell division, then this means that the microtubules of this cell will fall apart. They will not be able to make the microtubules and hence the chromosomes will not be able to separate.

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What is the number of tablets to dispense for the following prescription?
Prednisone 5mg tab
Sig: 5bid x 2days, 4 bid x 2days, 3bid x 2days, 2 bid x 2days, 1 bid x2days, then stop.

Answers

The total number of tablets to dispense for the given prescription of Prednisone 5mg tab is 60 tablets.

The given prescription is Sig: 5bid x 2days, 4 bid x 2days, 3bid x 2days, 2 bid x 2days, 1 bid x2days, then stop. We know that "bid" means twice a day. Hence, the prescription can be written as follows:

Day 1-2: 5 mg twice a day

Day 3-4: 4 mg twice a day

Day 5-6: 3 mg twice a day

Day 7-8: 2 mg twice a day

Day 9-10: 1 mg twice a day

Therefore, the total number of tablets to be dispensed would be:

2 days × 5 mg/day = 10 tablets

2 days × 4 mg/day = 8 tablets

2 days × 3 mg/day = 6 tablets

2 days × 2 mg/day = 4 tablets

2 days × 1 mg/day = 2 tablets

Thus, the total number of tablets to dispense would be 10 + 8 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 30 + 30 = 60 tablets.

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can somone sumarize the 3 little pigs

i forgot what it about..

isnt it abut that 4 worms that eat a blue crayon????

Answers

The three little pigs is a fable about three pigs who build their homes out of different materials. The first pig builds its house out of straw and takes barely any time, the second one builds his house out of sticks and doesn’t take much time either, and the last one builds his house out of brick. A wolf comes later that day and tries to eat the pigs. He easily blows down the straw and stick houses but can’t blow down the brick house. The moral of the story is that even if something is hard and takes a lot of time, it will pay off.

Explain why 85% of UAE residents suffer from deficiency of Vitamin D or the “Sunshine Vitamin”. What are the health risks due to this deficiency?

Answers

Answer with Explanation:

The United Arab Emirates (UAE) is a country located in the Middle East. It has a desert biome, which explains why its temperature is scorching hot. For this reason, many of the residents avoid being exposed to the sun and use air-cooling systems to avoid the heat. The sun is considered the main source of Vitamin D, also known as "Sunshine Vitamin." It can only be produced if the skin will be exposed to the sun. However, in the case of UAE, most residents don't like exposing their skin to the sun. This is the reason why they suffer from Vitamin D deficiency.

The health risks of Vitamin D deficiency are the following:

bone deformities/abnormalitiesmultiple sclerosispoor immune system, which increases the chance to have fludepression (low mood)headacheweight fluctuation

If too much glucose were administered to Skyler Hansen while the health care team was trying to correct his blood glucose level, what could occur

Answers

Answer:

if you apply to much sugar to the body a person could do in a diabetic shock and go into a coma

refined wheat products (white flour, bread etc) and white rice are good sources of folate. Why is that

Answers

Answer:

Folic acid (folate) is a B vitamin that can help you prevent certain birth defects including NTDS. In 1998 the U.S. Food and Drug Administration required that folic acid be added to enriched grain products.

a nurse is caring for a preterm newborn born at 29 weeks' gestation. which nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority?

Answers

The nursing diagnosis that would have the highest priority would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.

What is preterm newborn?

Preterm newborn is defined as the infant that is delivered before 37 weeks of gestation. That is a baby that arrived earlier than full term baby which should be 40 weeks of gestation.

Nursing diagnosis is been drafted and carried out by a well professionally trained registered nurse and this should be done based on the order of priority.

A preterm baby has most of its organs and systems under developed and this makes it difficult to regulate the internal environment of the body to adapt to the ever changing environment.

Therefore, the most important nursing diagnosis would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.

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What equipment is generally used to make lyophilized medications suitable for administering to the patient? a) Test tubes or sterile ampules O b) Petri dishes and sterile droppers c) Sterile syringes or graduated cylinders d) Measuring cups and clean, warm water

Answers

Petri dishes and sterile droppers is generally used to make lyophilized medications suitable for administering to the patient.

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant you should palpate the _____ artery
Brachial
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of?
Cardiac dysrhythmia
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patients airway with the jaw thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should?
Carefully perform the head tilt chin lift maneuver
You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by?
Compressing the sternum between the nipples
When performing chest compressions on an adult the EMT should compress
At least 2 inches
The most appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes
Administering oxygen and transporting immediately
In most cases cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by?
Respiratory arrest
What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for adult cpr
30:2
A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately
Ventilate with a BVM
If gastric distention begins to make positive pressure ventilation difficult you should?
Reposition the patients airway
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9 month old infant is?
1/3 the diameter of the chest or about 1 1/2"
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilation when performing two rescuer child CPR
15:2
The AED gives the "no shock" message to a patient who is in cardiac arrest. What should you do?
Resume chest compressions
What is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for spontaneous breathing in an unresponsive child
10 seconds
When you are performing CPR on an adult or child. Approximately how often should you reassess the patient for return of respirations and or circulation
Every 2 min
You are off duty and come across a child lying on the ground at a playground unresponsive. She does not have a pulse and no one witnessed the collapse. What's should you do?
Do 5 cycles of CPR then call 911
When performing CPR on an infant where should you place hands
Place two fingers in the middle of the sternum just below the nipple lines
A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to the neutral position or beyond
Active compression-decompression CPR
Noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest and cardiac arrest
Basic life support
The combo of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
The total percentage of time during resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed
Chest compression fraction
Rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal
Hyperventilation
A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow
Ischemia
Brain damage is very likely on a brain that does not receive oxygen for?
6-10 min
What sequence of events describes the AHA chain of survival
Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated post arrest care

Answers

Answer:Brachial artery

Explanation:

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant you should palpate the Brachial artery.

What are the different diagnoses in cardiology?

In cardiology, most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of Cardiac dysrhythmia. Carefully perform the head tilt chin lift maneuver for trauma patients.

During cardiac arrest compressing the sternum between the nipples, these compressions help the patient, while performing chest compressions on an adult the EMT should compress at least 2 inches.

The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR is 30:2. Ischemia is the term used for lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow.

Therefore, you should palpate the Brachial artery, when assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant.

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The main term used to locate information for: initial encounter for injury sustained from an explosion while boating.

Answers

Answer:

V93.53XA

Explanation:

In health care, diagnosis codes are used to locate information and identify the diseases or adverse effects of injuries and other patient encounters.

V93.53XA is the diagnosis code given by  ICD-10-CM  that gives the information about the patient encounters and refers to the initial encounter for injury sustained from an explosion while boating.

Hence, the correct answer is "V93.53XA".

The term angiopathy denotes any [blank] of a [blank]

Answers

Answer:

disease, vessel

Explanation:

Bebe Moore Campbell information

Answers

Answer:

Bebe Moore Campbell was an Author, Journalist, and Teacher who wanted people to know more about the mental health needs of the African American Community.

Just a short answer, but hopefully that helps...

Answer:

Bebe Moore Campbell, was an American author, journalist and teacher. Campbell was the author of three New York Times bestsellers: Brothers and Sisters, Singing in the Comeback Choir, and What You Owe Me, which was also a Los Angeles Times "Best Book of 2001". Her other works include the novel Your Blues Ain't Like Mine, which was a New York Times Notable Book of the Year and the winner of the NAACP Image Award for Literature; her memoir, Sweet Summer: Growing Up With and Without My Dad; and her first nonfiction book, Successful Women, Angry Men: Backlash in the Two-Career Marriage. Her essays, articles, and excerpts appear in many anthologies.

Explanation:

this is the clinical description of the presence of gallstones

Answers

The clinical description of the presence of gallstones includes the formation of hard deposits in the gallbladder, often causing symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and jaundice.

Gallstones are typically made up of cholesterol or bilirubin and can vary in size. They can obstruct the bile ducts, leading to inflammation, infection, and potentially serious complications such as pancreatitis or gallbladder rupture.

Prompt medical evaluation is necessary if gallstones are suspected, as treatment options may include medication to dissolve the stones, surgical removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy), or other interventions to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.

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the study of sexuality that led to a revolution in the treatment of sexual dysfunction was done by:

Answers

The study of sexuality that led to a revolution in the treatment of sexual dysfunction was done by Masters and Johnson, who conducted extensive research on human sexual response and developed techniques for treating various forms of sexual dysfunction.


The study of sexuality that led to a revolution in the treatment of sexual dysfunction was conducted by Masters and Johnson, a pioneering research team composed of William Masters and Virginia Johnson.

Their groundbreaking work greatly contributed to our understanding of human sexuality and helped develop effective therapies for various sexual dysfunctions.

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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c

Answers

The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.

Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.

4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.

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In most cases, a licensed practical nurse/ vocational nurse may

Answers

In most cases, a licensed practical nurse/ vocational nurse may work under the supervision of a registered nurse or physician and perform basic nursing tasks such as taking vital signs, administering medications, and assisting with patient care.

Let's say you are a trained psychologist in memory and have been asked to be a key witness in the defense of a person accused of murder. The murder victim was found in a dark alley. A witness had a glimpse of a shadowy figure standing over the body. The police thoroughly interrogate the witness and arrest a young man. The man has an alibi. There is no other evidence against him, except that of the witness. The witness is positive he saw the accused. Based on what you know, from a psychological perspective, what factors may lead you to doubt this strong testimony of the witness? Use your knowledge about the problems with eyewitness testimony and memory, and tell the jury why they should be doubtful of the witness. The jury is made up of your classmates. Use information from your text and from the video above.

Answers

Explanation:

As a trained psychologist in memory, I would be hesitant to fully trust the witness's testimony due to the well-documented problems with eyewitness testimony and memory. In particular, the reliability of eyewitness accounts is affected by several factors, including the stress of the event, the amount of time since the event, and the presence of weapons. For example, the stress of witnessing a violent crime can impair one's memory and lead to inaccuracies or even false memories.

Furthermore, research has shown that memory can be easily influenced by external factors, such as leading questions, suggestive comments, and even post-event information. In this case, the witness may have been inadvertently influenced by the media coverage of the crime or by police suggestions during the interrogation process. The fact that the witness only caught a glimpse of a shadowy figure in a dark alley also raises concerns about the reliability of their testimony. With these factors in mind, I would urge the jury to approach the witness's testimony with caution and consider other forms of evidence before reaching a verdict.

When dining out, certain key words on a menu can indicate how a dish has been prepared. In general, which preparation methods tend to be the healthiest (i.e. prepared with minimal added fat)? nasm

Answers

When dining out, certain key words on a menu can indicate how a dish has been prepared. In general, the healthiest preparation methods tend to be those that have been prepared with minimal added fat or none at all.

This is because high fat intake has been linked to various health problems, including heart disease, high blood pressure, obesity, and others. Some of the preparation methods that tend to be the healthiest include roasting, grilling, baking, steaming, and broiling.These methods typically involve little to no added fat, making them a great option for those who are looking to enjoy a healthy meal while dining out. It is important to note, however, that some dishes may be marketed as healthy but still contain high amounts of sodium or added sugars. Therefore, it is important to be mindful of the ingredients and preparation methods used in each dish and to make informed choices when dining out.

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The main difference between physical activity and exercise for improving physical fitness is the ________ of exercise frequency duration intensity structure

Answers

The main difference between physical activity and exercise for improving physical fitness is the type of exercise frequency, duration, intensity and structure.

What is Physical activity?

Physical activity are activity carried out by the body.

It involves the movement of the muscles and it requires the use of Energy. Exercise is an example of physical activity.

Therefore, The main difference between physical activity and exercise for improving physical fitness is the type of exercise frequency, duration, intensity and structure.

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A doctor is explaining treatment options to a patient by using complicated medical jargon, and the patient appears to be
confused. This is best described as a(n)

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: Communication barrier

which of the following statements by the parents of a child with iron deficiency anemia indicates that the parents understand the effects of oral iron therapy?

Answers

The statement that indicates that the parents of a child with iron deficiency anemia understand the effects of oral iron therapy is "My child should rinse their mouth after taking the liquid iron."

Iron deficiency anemia is a condition where there is too little amount of iron in the body. It's commonly caused by a low amount of healthy red blood cells in the body (anemia).

Oral iron therapy is a type of treatment used for people suffering from iron deficiency anemia. For a child, make sure to measure the dose correctly. It's best to give the medication after a meal.

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2. Myoclonus is best treated by:

Answers

Anticonvulsant medicines

3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?​

Answers

The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.

What is EDTA?

EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.

EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.

EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.

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An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?

Answers

I can only provide some general insights, so it's important to note that I am not a lawyer, and legal cases can vary depending on jurisdiction and specific circumstances. In a situation where the biological father of a child born through in vitro fertilization (IVF) is different from the intended father, complex legal and ethical considerations arise.

1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.

2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.

3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.

Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.

It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.

Which is a surgical procedure used to stop bleeding?

hemospasm
hemorrhage
hemostasis
hemolysis

Answers

Answer: hemostasis

Explanation: hope this helps

A surgical technique called hemostasis is used to control bleeding.

The goal of the intricate process known as hemostasis is to stop the flow of blood away from a wounded vessel. 

What five steps of hemostasis are there? Vascular spasm.Platelet Plug Formation.Coagulation of the blood.Retraction of the Clot.Lysis (the dissolution of clots).What makes hemostasis crucial during surgery?

To minimize the negative physiological effects of surgery that have an impact on recovery, including the need for transfusions, and to improve the view of the surgical field while lowering the risk of surgical complications, effective control of bleeding is required.

Surgical hemostatic agents: what are they?To control bleeding from surgical surfaces, topical hemostatic agents (physical agents, biologically active agents) and tissue adhesives are used as an addition to or substitute for standard surgical techniques. They are especially helpful for diffuse non-anatomic bleeding and bleeding linked to sensitive structures.

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2. the year is 1995. automated sequencing has just become available but it is still quite new and thus, is slow. with this in mind, and using the pedigree you designed in question

Answers

In 1995, establishing a patent airway is done using traditional methods such as manual airway maneuvers, endotracheal intubation, or insertion of an oropharyngeal airway.

Automated sequencing, although a new technology, does not directly impact airway management techniques. The patent airway is crucial for ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation in patients, especially in emergency situations. Manual techniques involve clearing obstructions, positioning the head and neck, and using devices to open the airway. Endotracheal intubation is performed by inserting a tube into the trachea to secure the airway, often with the aid of direct laryngoscopy. These established methods remain the primary means of establishing a patent airway in 1995, regardless of the availability of automated sequencing technology.

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Find the x-coordinate of Q' after Q(-2.5) was reflected over the line y = -x + 4. Is a broadband access method that depends upon fiber optic cablesa. ADSLb. WLL c. PONSd. CATV what advice would you give to a senior who wants your help with learning how to snack healthier? Supporters of laissez-faire generally favorO A) free tradeO B) government protectionsO-C) high pricesOD) tariffs If King Kong was 120 ft tall with 8ft long teeth, how tall is a toy King Kong with 4 inch long teeth? (show all work on paper). A24 in. B36 in. C60 in. D12 in. E9 in. What is the average rate of change for this quadratic function for the interval from x = 0 to x = 2?A. 4B. 2C. -4D. -2 The immediate energy source that drives atp production during chemiosmosis is. Find and sketch the domain for the function. f(x,y) = V 1 (x2 - 16) (y2 -25) Find the domain of the function. Express the domain so that coefficients have no common factors other than 1. Select the co helpppppp plzzzzzzzzzz A racing car can complete an 800 m long lap in 14 s. What is the speed of thecar? what are the two different ways that default arguments can be provided to a function? (choose two.) Identify the figurative language used in the following line from Arthur Miller's The Crucible:I'll tell you what's walking Salemvengeance is walking Salem. Hyperbole Personification Simile Symbolism A patient with a burn wound is prescribed mafenide acetate 5% (Sulfamylon) twice daily. Nursing implications associated with this medication include which of the following?a) Premedicating the patient with an analgesic prior to applicationb) Monitoring the patient's Na+ and K+ serum levels and replace as prescribedc) Monitoring the patient for the development of respiratory acidosisd) Protecting the bed linens and patient's clothing from contact to prevent staining Please choose the correct answer for the Coriolis force O A. The higher the latitude, the larger the Coriolis force O B. Coriolis force doesn't depend on the latitude O C. The higher the latitude, the smaller the Coriolis force what is the general purpose of feedback inhibition? what is the problem if feedback inhibition happens when it isn't supposed to? 9. What is the error in the follow proof?x+y=z(11x - 10x) + (11y - 10y) = (11z - 10z)11x + 11y - 11z = 10x + 10y - 10z10(x + y - 2) = 11(x + y - z)10 = 11 four seats on the fomc are allocated to federal reserve bank presidents on an annual rotating basis.true or false AB Associates is reviewing its stock policy and has the following alternatives available for the evaluation of stock number 12789: (i) Purchase stock twice monthly - 100 units (ii) Purchase stock mont lin-manuel mirandas musical hamilton tells the story of the founding fathers by using multicultural, nontraditional casting and hip-hop music. group of answer choices true false IQ scores are normally distributed with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. Out of a randomly selected 1450 people from the population, how many of them would have an IQ between 106 and 125, to the nearest whole number?