As men age, a disease known as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), or enlargement of the prostate gland, becomes more prevalent. N40.1, R33.8 are codes reported for ICD-10-CM .
Uncomfortable urinary symptoms, such as a bladder blockage, might be brought on by an enlarged prostate gland. Prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) may also result in issues with the kidneys, urethra, urinary system, or bladder.
Symptoms: urinary incontinence
Treatments: Prostate surgery through the urethra
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All of the following are true regarding over-the-counter medications, EXCEPT:Self-selected from a store shelfMay be used by more than one individualTend to be stronger than prescription preparationsMay be used to treat more than one specific ailment
All the following are true regarding over-the-counter medications except Self-selected from a store shelf, option A.
Over-the-counter (OTC) drugs are meds sold straightforwardly to a shopper without a prerequisite for a solution from a medical care professional, rather than doctor prescribed drugs, which might be provided exclusively to purchasers having a substantial medicine.
In numerous nations, OTC medications are chosen by an administrative organization to guarantee that they contain fixings that are protected and compelling when utilized without a doctor's consideration. Instead of final products, OTC drugs are typically regulated according to their active pharmaceutical ingredient (API). Governments grant manufacturers the freedom to create proprietary mixtures out of ingredients or combinations of ingredients by regulating APIs rather than specific drug formulations.
A medication that can be purchased without a medical prescription is known as an over-the-counter (OTC) drug. On the other hand, prescription drugs require a prescription from a doctor or other health care professional and should only be used by the person who was prescribed them.
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Complete question:
All of the following are true regarding over-the-counter medications, EXCEPT:
Self-selected from a store shelf
May be used by more than one individual
Tend to be stronger than prescription preparations
May be used to treat more than one specific ailment
How could the prevalence of a disease increase over time while the incidence remains the same? Explain.
Prevalence (fullness of the basin) will decrease if the incidence of the disease remains constant but the rate of mortality from the condition or the rate of cure rises.
The prevalence will increase if incidence stays the same while prevalent patients' lives are extended but they aren't cured.
How are incidence and prevalence related to one another?Incidence is the percentage or rate of people who develop a condition within a specific time period, as opposed to prevalence, which refers to the proportion of people who have a condition at or during a specific time period. The difference between prevalence and incidence percentage is that the former includes all instances—both new and old—in the population at the time in question, whereas the latter only includes new cases.
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What types of agencies are designed for people who have no major health problems but are unable to live independently?
A. adult day cares
B. assisted living facilities
C. hospitals
D. long-term care centers
Answer:
Adult day cares because most of the people are healthy but still they (children) put them in adult day care
Explain whether there are things you should not bring to a job interview
Answer:
Your depression problems because they do not need to know about all your baggage
Explanation:
An interview is the process by which any organization selecting best candidate from the number of candidates. So you must perform very well.
From the point of view of candidate a interview is a chance to give a very first impression to interviewer.
There are many things you should not bring to a job interview. Some are mentioned below:-
1- People with party dresses.
When a candidate going to give an interview he must be well dressed such as he must wearing a formal shirt paint, black shoes and he may also wear a tie.
2- Any electronic devices which aren't in silent mode.
In modern era there are very normal that people have electronic gadgets. You must sure that your electronic device either switch off or in silent mode by this any other people or interviewer are not disturbed or interrupt due to your electronic device.
3- Your private information.
During the interview you must be a very professional. You don't share any personal or any other things which are not to your professional life.
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The tendency of a person to catastrophize the extent of loss lowers his blood pressure.
Answer: What is the question
Explanation:
Reilly is a nursing assistant working with Hunter. Reilly didn't get a chance to read Hunter's chart before entering
Hunter's room. Reilly introduces himself and says he is going to take Hunter's vitals. Hunter seems to understand but
is quiet. When Reilly turns away to get equipment, he keeps talking to Hunter to make him comfortable. He notices that
when he turns away from Hunter, Hunter waves his arms until Reilly is speaking directly face-to-face. Reilly looks at
Hunter's chart and brings in an interpreter for sign language. Which kind of communication barrier did Reilly
overcome?
Answer:
A language communication barrier
Explanation:
sign LANGUAGE :D
a client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas for the client to stop doing so. during an interview with the nurse, which client statement most strongly supports a diagnosis of a substance use disorder?
The client's statement indicating a pattern of repeatedly driving while intoxicated despite pleas to stop strongly supports a diagnosis of a substance use disorder.
The key indicator in this scenario is the client's repeated behavior of driving while intoxicated despite the pleas of their family members to stop. This behavior demonstrates a lack of control and disregard for the consequences associated with substance use. It suggests that the client is unable to resist the urge to drink and drive, even in the face of potential harm to themselves and others.
Substance use disorders involve a range of problematic patterns of substance use that lead to significant distress or impairment in various areas of life. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), which is widely used in psychiatric diagnoses, outlines specific criteria for diagnosing substance use disorders. These criteria include impaired control over substance use, continued use despite negative consequences, and a strong desire or inability to cut down or stop using the substance.
In this case, the client's statement provides direct evidence of impaired control over their substance use. Despite the family members' pleas to stop driving while intoxicated, the client persists in engaging in this dangerous behavior. This behavior is consistent with the diagnostic criteria for a substance use disorder, specifically highlighting the inability to control substance use despite negative consequences.
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An ER doctor is examining a burned patient and notices that the patient's burn has destroyed all three layers of skin.
What type of burn does the patient most likely have?
a sunburn
a first-degree burn
a second-degree burn
a third-degree burn
correct answer: third-degree burn. because only a third degree burn can destroy all three layers of skin.
Answer:
D. :)
Explanation:
What is the management of urinary retention?
The management of urinary retention depends on the underlying cause and severity of the condition. For acute urinary retention, immediate catheterization may be required to relieve the bladder and prevent further complications.
Chronic urinary retention may require a combination of medical and/or surgical interventions. Some of the possible treatments include:
Medications: Alpha-blockers or 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors may be used to relax the bladder and prostate muscles.
Behavioral modifications: Timed voiding, pelvic floor exercises, and biofeedback techniques may be helpful in some cases.
Catheterization: Intermittent or indwelling catheterization may be necessary in cases of chronic urinary retention.
Surgery: Depending on the underlying cause, surgical interventions such as prostatectomy, bladder neck incision, or bladder augmentation may be considered.
It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management of urinary retention.
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a medication used to treat viral infections is known as
what is commenting inappropriate comments on social media a breach of?
Answer: Community Guidelines or Terms of Service
Explanation: Commenting inappropriate comments on social media can be considered a breach of the platform's community guidelines or terms of service which are a part of the platform's policies.. These guidelines typically outline the expected behavior of users and prohibit actions such as bullying, harassment, hate speech, or sharing inappropriate content. By commenting inappropriate comments, you are violating these rules and potentially subject to consequences such as warnings, account suspension, or even permanent bans from the platform. It is important to maintain a respectful and positive online environment by engaging in constructive and appropriate discussions.
Learn more about Brainly's Policies here: https://brainly.com/our-policies which include Brainly's Term of Service and Community Guidelines.
1. A 70-year-old woman comes to you complaining of worsening low back pain. She can no
longer work in her garden because it hurts to bend over and pick out all of the weeds. She has a
history of multiple fractures and she swears that she is shrinking!
a. Differential diagnosis:
b. Diagnostic tool(s):
Answer: i think its b diagnostic tools
You see that one of the residents needs much more help eating than normal. What should you do after offering to assist the resident?
Tell your supervisor that the resident requires more help.
Call the resident’s family and let them know the resident needs more help.
You are not required to do anything beyond assisting the resident with eating.
Nothing Selected
Hii!!! I believe that the answer might be A. Tell your supervisor that the resident requires more help. (:
Which is the best corrective measure to treat a child to have a shorter lower limb that causes asymmetrical?
The best corrective measure for a child with a shorter lower limb causing asymmetry is typically a combination of non-surgical interventions and surgical options.
Non-surgical interventions may include physical therapy, orthotic devices, and shoe modifications to help improve alignment and function. Surgical options may include limb lengthening procedures, where the shorter limb is gradually lengthened over time using external or internal devices. In some cases, a combination of limb lengthening and realignment procedures may be necessary.
The specific treatment plan will depend on the child's individual needs and should be determined by a team of specialists, including orthopedic surgeons and physical therapists.
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A patient is to receive acetylcysteine (mucomyst) as part of the treatment for an acetaminophen (tylenol) overdose. which action by the nurse is appropriate when giving this medication?
The appropriate action by the nurse when giving acetylcysteine treatment is to administer by way of intravenous infusion.
Overdose of medication results in unfavourable health conditions
What is meant by overdose medication?Overdose medication simply refers to the act of taking medicines, drugs or injection inappropriately by taking too much of it.
However, taking any medication in overdose usually cause health complications which may be life threatening.
So therefore, the appropriate action by the nurse when giving acetylcysteine treatment is to administer by way of intravenous infusion
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What does the acronym RACE stand for, as it pertains to fire safety?
Answer:
Remove, Alarm, Confine, and Extinguish/Evacuate
The site investigator receives a copy of an expedited safety report that represents an increased risk to the study participants.
The site investigator has received an expedited safety report indicating an elevated risk to study participants.
What is an expedited safety report?An expedited safety report is a document that details an unexpected adverse event that occurred during a clinical trial and poses a serious risk to study participants. These reports are submitted by the sponsor of the trial to regulatory agencies, ethics committees, and investigators.
What is the role of the site investigator in responding to an expedited safety report?Upon receiving an expedited safety report, the site investigator must take immediate action to ensure the safety and well-being of the study participants. This may involve reviewing the study protocol, examining participant records, and communicating with the sponsor and other relevant parties. The site investigator is also responsible for reporting the adverse event to the appropriate regulatory agencies and ethics committees, as well as taking steps to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.
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The client with osteoarthritis is being discharged home. What are three (3) teaching points about safety that the nurse should reinforce with the client?
Answer: Fall prevention, Medication safety, and Home safety
Explanation:
When providing discharge education to a client with osteoarthritis, the nurse should emphasize the following teaching points about safety:
1. Fall Prevention: Osteoarthritis can cause joint pain, stiffness, and reduced mobility, increasing the risk of falls.
The nurse should educate the client about fall prevention strategies, such as keeping pathways clear of obstacles, using assistive devices like canes or walkers if necessary, wearing appropriate footwear for stability, and ensuring adequate lighting in the home.
It is also important to encourage the client to avoid risky activities or environments that may increase the likelihood of falls.
2. Joint Protection: Osteoarthritis can lead to joint damage and exacerbate pain. The nurse should teach the client about joint protection techniques to minimize further stress on the affected joints.
The nurse can help the client with osteoarthritis maintain safety, prevent falls, and manage their condition effectively at home.
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the combining form that means cause (of disease) is
The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.
The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.
Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.
The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).
Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.
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According to surveys, what percentage of college students report having consumed alcohol in the past 30 days? A. 10% B. 25% C. 40% D. 60% E. 85%
According to surveys, the percentage of college students who report having consumed alcohol in the past 30 days is: E. 85%.Alcohol consumption among college students is a widespread phenomenon in the United States.
Several studies have been conducted to establish the prevalence of alcohol use among college students. One such study, conducted by the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, found that four out of five college students drink alcohol. Additionally, over 50% of college students aged 18-22 years reported drinking alcohol in the past month.
The high prevalence of alcohol consumption among college students has been linked to various negative consequences, including poor academic performance, mental health issues, and accidents. Therefore, college students are encouraged to make responsible decisions concerning alcohol use.
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A new graduate medical-surgical nurse is interested in joining a professional organization. Which organization should the nurse’s manager recommend?.
The American Nurses Association is the group the nurse's boss should suggest.
By encouraging high levels of nursing practice, providing a secure and moral workplace, supporting nurses' health and wellbeing, and speaking out on healthcare problems that impact nurses and the general public, ANA advances the profession. The ANA is at the forefront of efforts to raise the standard of healthcare for everyone.
The Code of Ethics for Nurses including Interpretive Statements was created as a manual for performing nursing duties in a way that adheres to the ethical standards of the profession and the standard of nursing care.
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Your patient, Fluffy, has been prescribed Amoxicillin 300 mg orally daily as part of
his treatment for kennel cough. The pharmacy sends up Amoxicillin 600 mg
extended-release tablets. How many tablets do you give Fluffy?
at age 76, which chronic condition is beth most likely to suffer from? a. arthritis b. heart disease c. hypertension d. hearing impairment.
At age 76, the chronic condition that Beth is most likely to suffer from is hypertension (high blood pressure). The correct option is C.
Hypertension is a common age-related condition that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. As individuals age, the risk of developing hypertension increases due to factors such as decreased elasticity of blood vessels and changes in hormonal regulation.
Arthritis is also common in older adults, but it does not occur universally and can vary in severity. Heart disease is a possibility, but it depends on other risk factors and individual health status.
Hearing impairment is prevalent among older adults, but it is not as prevalent as hypertension in the general population.
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2. Which of the following features make
online pharmacies an appealing option to
patients?
O A. Avoiding sales tax
B. Being able to develop a personal
relationship with the pharmacist
O C. Privacy and convenience
D. Wider selection of brand-name
medications to choose from
The online pharmacy store offers Privacy and convenience. Option C
What is an online pharmacy store?We know that an online pharmacy store is the kind of pharmacy store where there is no physical contact between the pharmacist and the person that wants to purchase the drugs. In other words, the person that is buying the drugs only needs to meet with the store electronically.
This would offer a good convenience and privacy to the kind of patients that does not want to be seen or known due to the peculiarity of the kind of drugs that they are buying.
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a nurse is teaching a pt about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer, what statement should the nurse include in the teaching
Answer:
you should avoid eating red meat prior to testing
Explanation:
A fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) is a cost-effective, non-invasive method for colon cancer screening, which can be used in asymptomatic patients. The FOBT test is used to identify hidden blood in stool samples, which may be indicative of colon cancer and the presence of polyps in the colon/rectum. It has been shown that screening by FOBT can significantly reduce mortality from colorectal cancer. Two days before the FOBT test, it is imperative to avoid red meats and other foods (e.g., beets, carrots, cauliflower, cucumbers, grapefruit, broccoli, cantaloupe, etc), which might lead to false alarms.
Why are people encouraged to get a flu shot?
A A flu shot is a vaccine that prevents people from catching the flu.
B A flu shot is an antibiotic that kills bacteria in the human body.
с
A flu shot is an antiviral that slows down the multiplication of viru
in cells.
D
A flu shot is a chemical that kills parasites in the human body.
A 165-lb. woman with hypertension begins a weight-loss program. As her weight declines, the earliest she can expect to see a significantly lower blood pressure value is when her weight drops to _____.
In general, a weight loss of 5-10% of body weight can lead to a significant reduction in blood pressure in people with hypertension. For a 165-lb. woman, a 5-10% weight loss would be equivalent to losing 8-16.5 lbs. Therefore, she may begin to see a significant reduction in blood pressure when her weight drops to around 148.5-156 lbs.
Weight loss can be an effective way to lower blood pressure in people with hypertension. However, the amount of weight loss needed to see a significant reduction in blood pressure can vary depending on a number of factors, such as starting weight, age, gender, and other health conditions.
It's important to note that weight loss alone may not be enough to control hypertension, and other lifestyle changes such as a healthy diet, regular exercise, and stress management may also be needed. Additionally, any changes to blood pressure medication should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.
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what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes
The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.
A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.
When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.
By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and we can prevent them in future.
A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.
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the health care provider orders an oral antibiotic for a male client three times a day for 7 days. the client asks the nurse if this is correct, because his sister took the same antibiotic for 5 days. on what factor is the amount and frequency of the antibiotic dosing based?
The amount and frequency of the antibiotic dosing is based on several factors, including the type and severity of the infection, the client's age and weight, and any underlying medical conditions or allergies.
In this specific case, the health care provider has ordered an oral antibiotic for a male client three times a day for 7 days. It is important to note that antibiotic dosing and duration are individualized and can vary from person to person, even if they are being treated for the same infection.
The client's concern about his sister taking the same antibiotic for only 5 days highlights the importance of following the prescribed medication regimen as directed by the health care provider. Taking antibiotics for too short a duration can result in incomplete treatment of the infection, leading to the development of antibiotic resistance.
On the other hand, taking antibiotics for too long can increase the risk of adverse effects and the development of secondary infections. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to take the antibiotic as prescribed, for the full duration of the course, even if he starts feeling better before the 7 days are up. If the client experiences any side effects or concerns during the course of treatment, he should communicate them with his health care provider.
Ultimately, adherence to the prescribed medication regimen will ensure the most effective treatment of the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
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18. hands should be washed with soap and water after
contact with this bacteria
True. Hands should be washed with soap and water after contact with bacteria in order to reduce the risk of transmission. Soap and water work to remove bacteria from the skin by breaking down the bacteria's cell membrane, which causes the bacteria to dissolve and be washed away. This is an effective method for removing bacteria from the hands and reducing the risk of infection.