A particle has charge -5.00nc. (a) find the magnitude and direction of the electric field due to this particle at a point 0.300m directly above it. (b) at what distance from this particle does its electric field have a magnitude of 13.0N/C.

Answer:

A. 1.71 m

B. 2.66 m

Explanation:

A. Determination of the height of the pier.

We'll begin by calculating the time taken for the ball to get to the water

This can be obtained as follow:

Horizontal velocity (u) = 1.27 m/s,

Horizontal distance (s) = 0.75 m

Time (t) =?

s = ut

0.75 = 1.27 × t

Divide both side by 1.27

t = 0.75 / 1.27

t = 0.59 s

Finally, we shall determine the height of the pier as follow:

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²

Time (t) = 0.59 s

Height of pier (h) =?

h = ½gt²

h = ½ × 9.8 × 0.59²

h = 4.9 × 0.3481

h = 1.71 m

Thus, the height of the pier is 1.71 m

B. Determination of the horizontal distance.

Horizontal velocity (u) = 4.50 m/s

Time (t) = 0.59 s

Horizontal distance (s) =?

s = ut

s = 4.5 × 0.59

s = 2.66 m

Thus, if the ball moved at a velocity of 4.50 m/s off the pier, it will land at a distance of 2.66 m from the end of the pier.

The infant alligator's sex is the dependent variable in this experiment, and temperature is the independent variable.

The independent and dependent variables are the two main factors in an experiment. In a scientific experiment, an independent variable is a variable that is altered or controlled to see how it affects the dependent variable. In a scientific experiment, the variable under test and being measured is known as the dependent variable. Example: Your test score is influenced by how much you sleep (an independent variable) (dependent variable). One of the most crucial aspects of scientific study is establishing cause and effect relationships. Knowing which variable is the cause, or independent variable, and which is the effect, or dependent variable, is crucial.

To know more about depdendent and independent variable, click here:

https://brainly.com/question/967776

#SPJ4

Given,

The mass of the box, m=35.0 kg

The height to which the box was lifted, h=1.75 m

Potential energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its position.

The gravitational potential energy gained by the box is,

Where g is the acceleration due to gravity.

On substituting the known values,

Thus the gravitational potential energy gained by the box is 600.25 J

Explanation:

Formula for finding power : 1/f

Substitution of values:

1 /13.3 = 0.07518 cm

Please mark it as Brainliest!

Answer:

its  A. because since heat energy means thermal i think it is A and also When friction acts between two surfaces that are moving over each other, some kinetic energy is transformed into heat energy.

Explanation: your welcome and i hope its right

Answer:

V = I * R        voltage drop

P = I * V = I^2 * R        power

I = P / V = 327 / 15 = 21.8 amps

b)   I = 21.8 amps

a) R = P / I^2 = 327 / 21.8^2 = .69 ohms

Check:

V = I R = 21.8 * .69 = 15 Volts

The wire loop depicted in the diagram carries a current, indicated by the black arrows. The loop's sides have a given length.

The wire loop carrying a current creates a magnetic field around it due to the flow of electric charges. According to the right-hand rule, when the current flows in the direction shown by the black arrows, the magnetic field lines are oriented in a particular way.

The magnetic field lines form concentric circles around the wire, with the direction determined by the right-hand rule. If you curl your fingers in the direction of the current flow, your thumb points in the direction of the magnetic field lines. In this case, the magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the plane of the wire loop.

When a current-carrying loop is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force called the magnetic force. The magnitude and direction of this force depend on the strength of the current, the length of the sides of the loop, and the orientation of the magnetic field. To determine the specific effects and resulting forces on the wire loop, additional information is needed regarding the surrounding magnetic field and the presence of other nearby currents or magnetic sources.

Learn more about current-carrying loop here:

https://brainly.com/question/32816795

#SPJ11

Answer:

v = 0.76 [m/s]

Explanation:

The linear momentum generated by the shot must be calculated. This can be calculated using the following expression.

\(P=m*v\\\)

where:

P = linear momentum [kg*m/s]

m = mass [kg]

v = velocity [m/s]

\(P=0.004*380\\P=1.52[kg*m/s]\)

Now we can calculate the recoil velocity, because the momentum is equal for the rifle.

\(P=m*v\\v = P/m\\v = 1.52/2\\v = 0.76[m/s]\)

Answer:

6

.40 recharge

1.0v

45.0v

Answer:

-11,813.87N

Explanation:

According to coulombs law, the Force between the two charges is expressed as;

F = kq1q2/d²

k is the coulombs constant = 9*10⁹kg⋅m³⋅s⁻²⋅C⁻².

q1 = -0.00067 C

q2 = 0.00096 C

d  = 0.7m

Substitute into the formula:

F =  9*10^9 *  -0.00067 * 0.00096/0.7²

F = 9*10⁹*-6.7*10⁻⁴*9.6*10⁻⁴/0.49

F = -578.88*10⁹⁻⁸/0.49

F = -578.88*10/0.49

F = -5788.8/0.49

F = -11,813.87N

Hence the force between the two charges is -11,813.87N

For laminar flow of air in a circular tube where the inlet temperature is lower than the constant surface temperature of the tube, if the mass flow rate were increased, both the outlet temperature and the heat transfer rate would decrease.

When the mass flow rate is increased, the velocity of the fluid inside the tube also increases. This reduces the thermal boundary layer thickness and hence the amount of heat transferred to the fluid. As a result, the outlet temperature decreases. At the same time, since the heat transfer rate is directly proportional to the mass flow rate, an increase in mass flow rate will result in an increase in heat transfer rate. However, the decrease in outlet temperature will offset this increase, and the net effect will be a decrease in the heat transfer rate. Therefore, both the outlet temperature and the heat transfer rate would decrease when the mass flow rate is increased.

To know more about laminar flow click this link -

brainly.com/question/15863555

#SPJ11

Answer: C

Explanation:

Since bulb B is burnt out, the wires can't transfer to bulb A, so that's why bulb A will burn out.

If I get it wrong, sorry. Im still learning.

Answer:

DMs are not accessible anymore. I assume Zuka is a staff member? the only way to talk to a staff member anymore is to report something, but even then, the probably won't even look at what they're deleting :/

May I have brainliest please? :)

Answer:

The final velocity is 31.86 m/s.

Explanation:

The final velocity can be found using the following equation:

\( V_{f} = V_{0} + at \)

Where:

\(V_{f}\) is the final velocity =?

\(V_{0}\) is the initial velocity = 33.9 m/s

a is the acceleration = -2.02 m/s²

t is the time = 1.01 s

\( V_{f} = V_{0} + at = 33.9 m/s + (-2.02 m/s^{2})*1.01 s = 31.86 m/s \)

Therefore, the final velocity is 31.86 m/s.

I hope it helps you!

The given statement is True.

Explanation:

A convex mirror is also known as a diverging mirror because it diverges rays of light that fall on it. It is curved outwards and has a reflective surface on its outer surface. Convex mirrors always produce virtual, erect, and diminished images of objects.

For all positions of the object, the image created by a convex mirror is virtual, upright, and smaller than the object.

The focal length of a convex mirror is negative and is one-half of its radius of curvature. A convex mirror has a focal length that is half of its radius of curvature. The image created by a convex mirror is always smaller than the object, and it is also located between the focal point and the mirror's surface when the object is positioned beyond the mirror's focal point.

Hence, a convex mirror produces a reduced real image when the object is placed far beyond its focal point (region 1).So, the given statement "a convex mirror produces a reduced real image when the object is placed far beyond its focal point (region 1)" is True.

Know more about  convex mirror here,

https://brainly.com/question/31234954

#SPJ11

2000 mm is equivalent to 2 m. This can be derived from the fact that 1 m = 1000 mm. Thus, 2000 mm would be equal to 2 m since it is twice the length of 1000 mm. This conversion is important in various fields such as construction, engineering, and science where precision is necessary.

It is crucial to be able to convert between different units of measurement in order to make accurate calculations and measurements.The millimeter is a unit of length that is often used to measure small distances such as the thickness of a sheet of paper or the size of a small component. It is part of the metric system, which is a system of units used across the world that is based on multiples of 10.

This system makes it easy to convert between different units since it is based on a consistent set of rules.For example, to convert 2000 mm to meters, we can simply divide by 1000 since there are 1000 millimeters in a meter. This gives us 2 meters, which is the equivalent length in meters of 2000 millimeters.

To know more about equivalent visit:

https://brainly.com/question/25197597

#SPJ11

Explanation:

To determine whether something is living or nonliving, a living thing must meet seven specific characteristics: feeding, movement, respiration, excretion, growth, sensitivity, and reproduction. A living organism needs to be able to feed to make energy and grow.

Please allow me to know if I helped with a thank you, rating or brainly.

Miss Hawaii

The rotational kinetic energy of the armadillo has increased by 25 joules.

This is because the armadillo is rolling down the hill, which means that it is rotating around its center of mass. As it rolls, it is converting its gravitational potential energy into translational and rotational kinetic energy.

Since the gravitational potential energy has decreased by 40 joules and the translational kinetic energy has increased by 15 joules, the remaining 25 joules must have been converted into rotational kinetic energy. This means that the armadillo's rotational kinetic energy has increased by 25 joules.

Learn more about kinetic energy:

https://brainly.com/question/25959744

#SPJ4

Particle accelerators use electromagnetic fields to accelerate particles by exerting a force on them.

The magnetic field alone cannot increase a particle's velocity, but when combined with an electric field, it can

accelerate charged particles. This is because the magnetic field causes the particles to move in a circular path, while

the electric field provides the necessary energy to increase the speed of the particles as they move along this path.

Therefore, the electromagnetic field works by combining the effects of both the electric and magnetic fields to

accelerate particles in a controlled manner.

Particle accelerators work by utilizing both electric and magnetic fields to increase the energy of charged particles.

While it's true that magnetic fields alone cannot increase the velocity of a particle, they play an essential role in

controlling the particle's trajectory. On the other hand, electric fields are responsible for increasing the velocity of

charged particles.

Here's a step-by-step explanation of how particle accelerators work using electromagnetic fields:

1. Charged particles are introduced into the accelerator.

2. Electric fields provide the necessary force to accelerate the particles, increasing their velocity.

3. Magnetic fields guide and steer the particles along the desired path or into circular orbits.

4. As particles move through alternating electric fields, they continue to gain energy and increase their velocity.

5. When particles reach the desired energy level, they can be directed toward a target or collision point for experiments.

In summary, particle accelerators use electromagnetic fields to control and increase the velocity of charged particles. Electric fields accelerate the particles, while magnetic fields guide their trajectory.

learn more about the electromagnetic field: https://brainly.com/question/31650931

#SPJ11

Explanation:

The conductivity of water can be increased by adding any solute that increases the number of ions in solution.

Hope this helps you.. Good luck

The conductivity of water can be incrased by adding to it anything that disolves and ionizes in it.

Examples:

-- sugar

-- coffee

-- tea

-- artificial sweetener  

-- baking soda

-- orange juice

-- corn starch

-- salt

The value of Fₘₐₓ that gives the impulse of 6.0 Ns is 1500 N

We know that impulse is defined as:

Impulse = force × time

Considering the question given, the impulse will be the area of the triangle in the graph.

Area of triangle = ½bh

Thus,

Impulse = ½ × time × Fₘₐₓ

With the above formula, we can obtain the force (Fₘₐₓ). Details below:

Impulse = ½ × time × Fₘₐₓ

6 = ½ × 8×10⁻³ × Fₘₐₓ

6 = 4×10⁻³ × Fₘₐₓ

Divide both sides by4×10⁻³

Fₘₐₓ = 6 / 4×10⁻³

Fₘₐₓ = 1500 N

Thus, the value of Fₘₐₓ is 1500 N

Learn more about force and impulse:

https://brainly.com/question/1219455

#SPJ1

Complete question:

See attached photo

The two-input LUT is a very versatile logic element that can be used to implement a wide variety of functions.

a) Behavioral modeling in Verilog HDL is a high-level language that allows you to describe the behavior of a digital circuit without worrying about the underlying hardware implementation. This makes it a very effective way of describing digital circuits, as it allows you to focus on the functionality of the circuit without getting bogged down in the details of how it will be implemented.

b) The main difference between using a general-purpose processor and digital design in developing an electronic application is that a general-purpose processor is designed to be able to execute a wide variety of instructions, while digital design is specifically designed to implement a particular function. This means that a general-purpose processor may not be the most efficient way to implement a specific function, as it may require more hardware resources than a custom-designed digital circuit.

c) The four principles for effectively and quickly achieving the design are:

Regularity: The design should be as regular as possible. This means that the design should be made up of a small number of repeated units, rather than a large number of unique units.

Simplicity: The design should be as simple as possible. This means that the design should be easy to understand and implement.

Efficiency: The design should be as efficient as possible. This means that the design should use the minimum amount of hardware resources.

Verifiability: The design should be verifiable. This means that the design should be able to be checked to ensure that it meets its specifications.

The regularity principle can be explained by the following example. If you are designing a digital circuit to add two numbers, you could use a design that is made up of a small number of repeated units, such as adders and registers. This would be a more regular design than a design that used a large number of unique units, such as a custom-designed adder. A more regular design is easier to understand and implement, and it is also more likely to be efficient.

d) A two-input LUT in the FPGA implements a logic f = a b + ab by storing the truth table for the function in its memory. When the inputs to the LUT are applied, the LUT will output the corresponding value from its memory.

For example, if the inputs to the LUT are a = 0 and b = 1, the LUT will output the value 1, because the truth table for f shows that the output is 1 when a = 0 and b = 1.

The two-input LUT is a very versatile logic element that can be used to implement a wide variety of functions. It is a key building block in many FPGA designs.

Learn more about logic element with the given link,

https://brainly.com/question/1042568

#SPJ11

For 1/4 value of r is the potential energy equal to the total energy.

Potential energy is the form of energy that a object gain.

first want to find the value of our, what value of R is the potential energy equal to the total energy? So you are is equal to negative 1/4 pi epsilon naught E squared over R. Which is the potential energy. And E. This is a total energy. So we just set these two values equal to each other. So negative 1/4 pi epsilon naught E squared over R. Is equal to negative M. E. To the fourth divided by eight E squared and squared each squared and R is equal to two. So we can go ahead and solve this. We get R. Is equal to two. Absolutely not H squared divided by pi M. R. E squared. And actually this is just two times A. So the radius is to a. Now part B. We want to find the probability of electron being found in this classically forbidden forbidden region are greater than the classical turning point. So we need, so first of all let's look at the ground state wave function which is one over squared pi a cubed times E. To the negative are over A. This is what will be needed to integrate to find the probability. So the probability goes from R. is equal to two way to sigh.

To know more about potential energy click-

https://brainly.com/question/13997830

#SPJ1

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the formula : E = mc²

Where m = mass = 6.8 × 10^-6 kg

c = speed of light = 3 ×10^8 m/s

The amount of joules of energy that would be produced equals :

Plugging in our values :

E = mc²

E = (6.8 × 10^-6) kg × (3 ×10^8)²m/s

E = (6.8 × 10^-6) kg × 9 × 10^16 m/s

E = 61.2 × 10^(-6 + 16)

E = 61.2 × 10^10 J

Answer:

E = 6.12 × 1011 kg × m2/s2

Explanation:

Answer:

168 Hz

Explanation:

The Doppler equation describes how sound frequency depends on relative velocities:

fr = fs (c + vr) / (c + vs),

where fr is the frequency heard by the receiver,

fs is the frequency emitted at the source,

c is the speed of sound,

vr is the velocity of the receiver,

and vs is the velocity of the source.

Note: vr is positive if the receiver is moving towards the source, negative if away.

Conversely, vs is positive if the receiver is moving away from the source, and negative if towards.

Given:

fs = 164 Hz

c = 343 m/s

vr = -15 m/s

vs = -23 m/s

fr = fs (c + vr) / (c + vs)

fr = 164 Hz (343 m/s − 15 m/s) / (343 m/s − 23 m/s)

fr = 168 Hz

Answer:

Explanation:

b. orbit

a) Equivalent hydraulic diameter for a circular cross-section:

  Deq = 4 * Ac / P

(b) Equivalent hydraulic diameter for a square cross-section: Deq = a

(c) Equivalent hydraulic diameter for a rectangular cross-section:

Deq = 2 * (a * b) / (a + b)

d) Equivalent hydraulic diameter for an annular cross-section: Deq = D - d

a) In a circular cross-section, the equivalent hydraulic diameter (Deq) is defined as four times the cross-sectional area (Ac) divided by the perimeter (P). It represents a hypothetical diameter of a circular pipe that would have the same flow characteristics as the given non-circular cross-section.

b) In a square cross-section, the equivalent hydraulic diameter (Deq) is equal to the side length of the square. This simplification is possible because the flow characteristics in a square channel are similar in all directions.

c) In a rectangular cross-section, the equivalent hydraulic diameter (Deq) is given by two times the product of the width (a) and height (b) divided by their sum (a + b). This formula takes into account the dimensions of the rectangular channel to determine the equivalent diameter.

d)  In an annular cross-section, the equivalent hydraulic diameter (Deq) is equal to the difference between the outer diameter (D) and the inner diameter (d) of the annulus. This simplification assumes that the flow occurs only through the annular region.

To learn more about  hydraulic diameter here

https://brainly.com/question/31826346

#SPJ4

Hence, 127.2 m3/s per second is the required water flow rate from the dam's crest.

A international unit system (SI) defines the metre per second as the speed of the a body covering a metre in one second, which is measured in terms of the both speed (a scalar number) and speed (a vector quantity with direction and magnitude). m/s, m/s1, m/s, or ms are the SI unit symbols.

Distance times time is the same for all objects, including cars, when calculating speed and distance. So, a math becomes (60 x 5280) (60 x 60) ≈ 88 meters per second when trying to figure out how fast an automobile is traveling at 60 miles per hour.

To know more about per second visit:

https://brainly.com/question/17125529

#SPJ1

Answer:

El equilibrio térmico se alcanzará a los 152ºC.

Explanation:

Dado que un ladrillo de 2kg que se encuentra a 200º c, se sumerge en 5 kg de agua a 32º, para determinar a qué temperatura se alcanza el equilibrio térmico se debe realizar el siguiente cálculo:

2+5 = 7

(200 x 5 + 32 x 2) / 7 = X

1064 / 7 = X

152 = X

Por lo tanto, el equilibrio térmico se alcanzará a los 152ºC.

When the current flowing through an inductor is increasing, the voltage across the inductor also increases, according to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction.

This phenomenon occurs due to the inductor's inherent property of opposing changes in current. As the current increases, the magnetic field around the inductor expands and induces a voltage across the inductor that opposes the current change. This induced voltage can be visualized as a back EMF (electromotive force) that opposes the driving voltage. The magnitude of the induced voltage depends on the rate of current change, the inductance of the coil, and the number of turns of the coil.

To know more about EMF, here

brainly.com/question/15121836

#SPJ4

--The complete Question  is,

What happens to the voltage across an inductor when the current flowing through it is increasing? --