Answers
This methylphenidate medication may induce sleeplessness, weight loss, and gastrointestinal problems.
What is methylphenidate ?
Methylphenidate, often known as Ritalin and Concerta, is the most commonly prescribed central nervous system (CNS) stimulant medicine used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and, to a lesser extent, narcolepsy. It is a major treatment for ADHD; it can be taken orally or administered topically, and different formulations have variable durations of action, which typically range from 2-4 hours. Though there is little to no evidence to support its use as an athletic performance enhancer, cognitive enhancer, aphrodisiac, or euphoriant, claims that it can be used for these purposes persist.
Methylphenidate side effects include tachycardia, palpitations, headache, sleeplessness, anxiety, hyperhidrosis, weight loss, reduced appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and stomach pain.
This medication may induce sleeplessness, weight loss, and gastrointestinal problems.
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Related Questions
Hat modifier is used for medically-directed crna services?
Answers
This is because no is the correct explanation of no.
During diuretic therapy, the nurse monitors the fluid and electrolyte status of the patient. which assessment findings are symptoms of hyponatremia? select all that apply.
Answers
During diuretic therapy, the nurse monitors the fluid and electrolyte status of the patient. Assessment findings like lethargy, hypotension and stomach cramps are the symptoms of hyponatremia.
Hyponatremia is a disorder that develops when the blood's sodium content is unacceptably low. The body maintains an excessive amount of water in this circumstance. The result is a fall in the salt levels of the blood, which is diluted.When you have hyponatremia, your body's sodium levels are diluted for one or more reasons, such as an underlying medical condition or drinking too much water. Your body's water content increases as a result, and your cells start to inflate. From minor to potentially fatal health issues, this swelling can be the source of numerous. During diuretic therapy, assessment findings like low blood pressure (hypotension), fatigue i.e. lethargy, dizziness, and abdominal cramps mark the symptoms of the disease.To learn more about Hyponatremia refer:
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a nurse is assessing a client's surgical wound and sees drainage that is pale pink-yellow and thin and contains plasma and red cells. what is this type of drainage?
Answers
Drainage of this kind is Most frequently, hydrocolloid dressings are used to treat ulcerative disorders like pressure sores and lower extremities ulcers.
What is the best technique for the nurse to guarantee that the tubing is not under tension?Reason: The nurse should affix the drain to the client's gown with a safety pin below the level of the wound to guarantee there is no tension on the tubing of a Jackson-Pratt drain. Maintaining the bulb compressed and obstructing the drain's suction action is accomplished by taping the drain or wearing an abdominal binder.
Why does dehiscence occur?Dehiscence can be caused by ischemia, infection, elevated abdominal pressure, diabetes, malnutrition, smoking, and obesity, which are also factors in poor wound healing. The wound margins start to separate and there is more bleeding or drainage at the location when there is superficial dehiscence.
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what is responsibility
A. social health
B. Physical health
C. mental health
D Emotional health
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Research indicates that using __________, to slow down the bone breakdown process for up to five years, appears relatively safe.
(collagen, biophosphonates, anti-osteoarthritics, caffeine)
Answers
Research indicates that using biophosphonates, to slow down the bone breakdown process for up to five years, appears relatively safe.
Biophosphonates are medications that can slow down bone breakdown process, increase bone density, and diminish the risk of fractures. They are usually prescribed to people with osteoporosis, metastatic bone cancer, Paget's disease, and other bone disorders. Biophosphonates work by inhibiting the action of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. Biophosphonates attach themselves to bone surfaces and are absorbed by osteoclasts, which are bone cells that break down bone tissue. Osteoclasts are less active as a result of biophosphonates, and bone breakdown is resultantly mitigated. Biophosphonates also increase bone mineral density (BMD) and reduce the risk of fractures. Biophosphonates are not suitable for everyone, and they should only be used under the direction of a doctor. This results in less bone loss and aids in maintaining bone density. They can be taken orally or by intravenous injection and typically have few side effects when taken as prescribed by a doctor. The most typical side effects of biophosphonates are stomach upset, esophageal irritation, gastric ulcers, acid reflux, constipation, diarrhea and osteonecrosis of the jaw. They can also cause kidney damage or jawbone death, particularly if taken for an extended period. A rare side effect of biophosphonates is thigh bone fractures. Long-term use of bisphosphonates has also been linked to atypical femur fractures.
The other options given in the question are:
Collagen - It is a fibrous protein and the main structural protein in the in the formation of bone and other connective tissues. It provides support, firmness, and elasticity to the skin and bones. It is not used to slow down the bone breakdown process.
Anti-osteoarthritics - They are medications used to treat osteoarthritis, a condition that affects the joints and causes pain and stiffness.
Caffeine - It is a stimulant present in coffee, tea, and other beverages that can increase alertness and energy levels. It does not slow down the bone breakdown process for up to five years.
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which of the following have contributed to declines in tobacco use in the U.S.?
Answers
High-impact anti-tobacco media campaigns are one factor that may have contributed to the decline in cigarette smoking and the use of other tobacco products.
What made tobacco use decline in the United States?When the surgeon general issued the first study on smoking and health in 1964, things started to change. Smoking causes lung and laryngeal cancer and is a significant risk factor for conditions like cardiovascular disease, according to a landmark report that ushered in regulations that would alter the tobacco industry.
When did tobacco use decline?Over the past century, there have been significant changes in tobacco use behaviors. Adult smoking prevalence rates started to decline from their peak reached in 1964, following a sharp rise in cigarette use rates during the first half of the 20th century.
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Does a face LED light therapy mask at a 470nm to 590nm will it affect the eyes in anyway?
Answers
Answer:It is better if you get a red light LED mask for your eyes instead of and other LED
Hope this helps hun! :)
it’ll hurt them more if it were a blue light. blue light is very bad for your eyes
Do you agree with Dr. Walker and his colleagues that the changes to Jordan Jones’s meal could not explain his improved performance?
Answers
Answer:I agree with Dr. Walker and his colleagues that the changes to Jordan Jones's meal could not explain his improved performance because, food can´t change anything except for your hungriness, and the more food you eat the more fat you get, and not slim.
Explanation:
Yes, I completely agree with Dr. Walker and his colleagues that the changes to Jordan Jones’s meal could not explain his improved performance.
How your performance relates to the meal?Your performance relates to the meal but does not depend on it. This is because meal only provides you energy for physical as well as metabolic actiovities. But it does not mean if you do not get the meal of your wish, it impacts your performance and overall activity greatly.
According to the context of this question, a meal only gives you strength in order to perform your daily activities along with your jobs. But alterations in that could not explain or illustrates anyone's improved or reduced performances. Because other factors are also responsible for this happening.
Therefore, I completely agree with Dr. Walker and his colleagues that the changes to Jordan Jones’s meal could not explain his improved performance.
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The name of the specific Electronic Instument used to monitor physiological changes mostly regulated by the autonomic nervous? Please do not answer Bio-feedback. that is the result of utilizing the Electronic Instrument. Not the instument itself.
Answers
Answer:
Biofeedback is the process of gaining greater awareness of many physiological functions of one's own body, commercially by using electronic or other instruments, and with a goal of being able to manipulate the body's systems at will. Humans conduct biofeedback naturally all the time, at varied levels of consciousness and intentionality. Biofeedback and the biofeedback loop can also be thought of as self-regulation.[1][2] Some of the processes that can be controlled include brainwaves, muscle tone, skin conductance, heart rate and pain perceptions
Describe common psychological and physiologic changes that occur
during pregnancy.
Answers
Pregnancy brings about psychological changes such as mood swings and emotional sensitivity, while physiological changes include increased blood volume, hormonal shifts, weight gain, and adjustments in body systems to support the growing fetus.
During pregnancy, women experience various psychological and physiological changes. Psychologically, hormonal fluctuations can lead to mood swings, increased emotional sensitivity, and changes in libido. Pregnant women may also feel anxiety, excitement, and a range of emotions related to impending motherhood. Physiologically, the body undergoes significant transformations to accommodate the growing fetus. These changes include increased blood volume, hormonal shifts, weight gain, and changes in body shape.
The cardiovascular system adapts to support the increased demands of pregnancy, while the respiratory system experiences changes to provide oxygen to the developing baby. Hormonal changes affect almost all body systems, including the digestive system, leading to symptoms like morning sickness and heartburn. The musculoskeletal system adjusts to support the growing belly, potentially causing back pain and changes in posture.
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The complete question is:
Describe common psychological and physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy.
Which of the following terms means a hernia of the spinal cord? A. meningocele B. myelocele
C. meningomyelocele
Answers
The term that means a hernia of the spinal cord is C. meningomyelocele. Hence, option C) is the correct answer. A meningomyelocele is a congenital defect where the meninges and spinal cord protrude through a defect in the spinal column.
It is considered a type of spina bifida and can lead to various neurological complications. A meningomyelocele is a type of hernia that involves the spinal cord. It occurs when the meninges (protective membranes around the spinal cord) and the spinal cord itself protrude through a defect in the vertebral column.
This condition is often associated with spina bifida, a birth defect that affects the development of the spinal cord and vertebrae.
So, the term that means a hernia of the spinal cord is C. meningomyelocele.
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Question 6 of 20
Select the best answer for the question
6. Greg has just had a tracheostomy tube inserted. Since the procedure, he started to have difficulty in speaking. This condition is referred to as
O A. aphasia
O B. aphonia
O C. laryngalgia.
O D. dysphonia
Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)
Answers
Answer:
aphonia-loss of ability to speak through disease of or damage to the larynx or mouth
Explanation:
Harsha loves eating carrots. So much that the high levels of Vitamin A have caused his skin to turn orange. Which of the following would be a general term for this?OvernutritionMalnutritionUndernutritionAllergic reaction
Answers
The general term for Harshas condition, where his skin turns orange due to high levels of Vitamin A from eating too many carrots, is Overnutrition. Overnutrition refers to the excessive intake of nutrients, which can lead to health problems and negative side effects.
In this case, Harshas excessive consumption of carrots, which are high in Vitamin A, has caused his skin to turn orange. This is a result of Overnutrition, specifically from too much Vitamin A. Overnutrition occurs when a person consumes excessive amounts of nutrients, leading to health problems.
In this case, Harsha has consumed too much Vitamin A, causing his skin to turn orange. This is different from malnutrition, which is a lack of proper nutrients, and undernutrition, which is insufficient nutrient intake to meet the body's needs. Additionally, this is not an allergic reaction, as it is a direct result of excessive nutrient intake.
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Which Gestalt law of organization is BEST demonstrated in this image?
A.
law of harmony
B.
law of closure
C.
law of proximity
D.
law of similarity
Answers
The law of similarity, the Gestalt law of organization is best demonstrated in this image. Therefore, the correct option is D.
According to the Gestalt psychology principle, the law of similarity, people tend to think of objects as similar to each other. According to this theory, objects with similar characteristics are grouped together by our visual system. When two or more of these characteristics are shared by objects, it is assumed that they belong to the same class or group.
For example, the law of similarity predicts that if you have a collection of circles and squares of different sizes, you will probably see circles as one group and squares as another group.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Discuss the difference between short-term and long-term fitness goals. Provide an example of each
Answers
short term: gain a little muscle and be able to work out for more than 10 minutes at a time.
long term: to be really fit and feel good about yourself
in aortic rupture
Why is it happening in it hypotension lower extrimmtes ?
Why is it happening in it hypertension in Upper extremities ?
Answers
Answer:
Es una afección grave en la cual hay una ruptura en la pared de la arteria principal que transporta la sangre fuera del corazón (la aorta). A medida que la ruptura se extiende a lo largo de la pared de la aorta, la sangre puede correr por entre las capas de la pared del vaso sanguíneo (disección).
Explanation:
Kayla Christianson, CMA, has been employed six years by the cardiology practice of three physicians. She is a graduate of a CAAHEP-accredited school. Furthermore, Kayla received extensive hands-on training performing ECGs while doing her required externship. Kayla has completed an ECG ordered by Dr. Hsu for Mrs. Warner, a 76-year- old patient. Dr. Hsu, Kayla's boss, telephoned her explaining that he was behind schedule doing rounds at the hospital. He asked her to do him a favor and interpret Mrs. Warner's ECG, sign his name, and fax the report to Mrs. Warner's referring internist, who is expecting the results. W. Given the scope of Kayla's education, training, and years of experience as a CMA, would this "favor" fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities? 2. Would any portion of Dr. Hsu's request fall within the guidelines? If so, which portion(s)? Is an exception to these guidelines ever allowed? 3. How should Kayla respond to Dr. Hsu?
Answers
Based on the information given, it can be inferred that the favor doesn't fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities.
From the information given, it should be noted that the guidelines of CMA as stipulated under the American Association of Medical Assistant prohibits the CMA from interpreting the medical data of the patient. Therefore, the favor that was asked by Dr. Hsu of Kayla is simply against the guidelines.
Even though the favor that was asked by Dr. Hsu was prohibited by AAMA, it should be noted that the final part of the favor about faxing the report to the internist would fall within AAMA guidelines.
In conclusion, the best way that Kayla can respond to Dr. Hsu is to decline doing the favor.
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epitheliod cells in tubercular granuloma are derived from?
Answers
Answer:
The granuloma contains mostly blood-derived macrophages, epithelioid cells (differentiated macrophages) and multinucleated giant cells (also known as Langhans giant cells), surrounded by T lymphocytes [8, 9]. Caseous granulomas are typical of tuberculosis
Jared sneezes and gets runny noses when there pollen and other plant materials are in the air. His doctor describes to him how his immune system is reacting strongly to allergens, causing inflammation in mucous membranes that leads to these symptoms. Which treatment would the doctor MOST LIKELY prescribe to Jared to help reduce sneezing and runny nose?
a. fluticasone
b. antitussives
c. rhinovirus
d. bromfenac
Answers
Answer:
A. Fluticasone
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Explain the ways that prescription drug misuse can be prevented
and identify policies used to regulate the misuse of prescription
drugs. Is this misuse more likely to be prevented through law
enforcem
Answers
Law enforcement plays a role in preventing prescription drug misuse by enforcing regulations and targeting illicit activities, it is important to note that prevention is not solely reliant on law enforcement efforts.
Preventing prescription drug misuse requires a multifaceted approach that involves various strategies and policies. Here are some ways to prevent prescription drug misuse and policies used to regulate it:
Public Education and Awareness: Educating the public about the risks and potential harms of prescription drug misuse is crucial. Raising awareness through campaigns, informational materials, and community outreach programs can help individuals understand the importance of using prescription drugs appropriately and responsibly.Healthcare Provider Training: Ensuring that healthcare providers receive adequate training on proper prescribing practices is essential. Education programs can focus on responsible prescribing, identifying signs of misuse, and alternative pain management techniques. By promoting responsible prescribing, healthcare providers can help prevent the overuse or inappropriate use of prescription drugs.Prescription Drug Monitoring Programs (PDMPs): PDMPs are electronic databases that track the prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances. These programs enable healthcare providers and pharmacists to monitor patient prescription histories and identify potential cases of misuse, such as doctor shopping or excessive opioid prescriptions. PDMPs can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications and intervene early to prevent misuse.Proper Medication Disposal: Encouraging individuals to dispose of unused or expired prescription drugs properly is crucial in preventing misuse. Community-based drug take-back programs, drop-off boxes at pharmacies, and education on safe disposal methods can help reduce the availability of unused drugs in households and discourage improper use.Improved Prescription Drug Packaging and Labeling: Enhancing the packaging and labeling of prescription drugs can help prevent misuse. Clear instructions, warning labels, and indications of potential risks can increase patient awareness and reduce the likelihood of accidental misuse.Regulation and Law Enforcement: Policies and regulations play a vital role in regulating the misuse of prescription drugs. These can include laws that restrict the availability of certain drugs, regulate prescribing practices, and enforce penalties for illegal distribution or possession. Law enforcement efforts can target illegal activities, such as prescription drug diversion or illicit online pharmacies.A comprehensive approach that combines public education, healthcare provider training, monitoring programs, proper disposal methods, and regulatory policies is essential for effective prevention. It requires collaboration among healthcare professionals, policymakers, law enforcement agencies, community organizations, and individuals to address the complex issue of prescription drug misuse.
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what happens to the thickness of the uterine when the levels of the progresterone hrmone reaches it highest levels
Answers
The nurse is teaching acoworkers about the functions of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). Which statement by a coworker would require correction?1"The SNS regulates control of vision."2"The SNS regulates body temperature."3"The SNS regulates the acute stress response."4"The SNS regulates the cardiovascular system."
Answers
Answer:
The Sympathetic Nervous System do not have role in controlling of Vision.
Explanation:
The Sympathetic Nervous System functions during the fight-flight response in our body. It will increase heart beat,cardiac output, cutaneous vasoconstriction etc... The SNS action leads to dilation of the pupil but does not have a role in controlling the sense of Vision, It will control body temperature and cause acute stress response.Sympathetic Nervous system is a subdivision of Central Nervous System.The Hormone Epinephrine produced by Adrenal medulla helps in the timely function of SNS. It will cause an emergency response of a body to stress, It is not under direct conscious control and occurs automatically in a Stressful condition, It will help in maintaining homeostasis.
The statement that would require correction is: "The SNS regulates control of vision."
The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is one of the two main divisions of the autonomic nervous system and is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response. The SNS is involved in many physiological functions, including the regulation of body temperature, the acute stress response, and the cardiovascular system.
However, the SNS is not directly involved in the regulation of vision. Vision is primarily controlled by the sensory and motor neurons of the somatic nervous system, which is responsible for voluntary movements and sensory information processing.
Therefore, the correct statement would be that the SNS regulates the body's acute stress response, body temperature, and cardiovascular system, but not the control of vision.
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Trace a drop of CSF from a lateral ventricle to reabsorption at an arachnoid granulation.
Answers
Normal route of CSF from production to clearance is the following: From the choroid PLEXUS , the CSF flows to the lateral ventricle, then to the interventricular FORAMEN of Monro, the third ventricle, the cerebral aqueduct of SYLVIUS , the fourth ventricle, the two lateral foramina of Luschka and one MEDIAL foramen.
\(\rm \color{yellow} \: Thank \: You\)
Answer:
The choroid plexus of the ventricles (70 percent of the volume) produces the majority of CSF; the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles produces the rest. The remaining CSF is produced by transependymal flow from the brain to the ventricles.
A nursing instructor is leading a group discussion on congenital hydrocephalus. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which factor that determines the noncommunicating type?
Answers
Answer:
Hydrocephalus is produced when there is an imbalance between the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced by the choroid plexus and its absorption into the bloodstream. It is a congenital disease that can be divided into two major classes: communicating and non-communicating hydrocephalus. Communicating hydrocephalus is caused by blockage of the CSF circulation pathway after exit from the ventricles, while the non-communicating type is caused by the obstruction of one or more ventricles in the brain. Thus, the disruption of the ventricular zone (i.e., both the obstruction within a ventricle and the connection between ventricles) is known to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, while the factors associated with communicating hydrocephalus include insufficient CSF reabsorption, excessive CSF production and defective flow of CSF.
What are the general functions of the major
systems of the human body, and how do these
systems interact with each other to maintain
homeostasis?
Answers
Answer:
Circulatory system / Cardiovascular system:
Circulates blood around the body via the heart, arteries and veins, delivering oxygen and nutrients to organs and cells and carrying their waste products away.
Keeps the body's temperature in a safe range.
Digestive system and Excretory system:
System to absorb nutrients and remove waste via the gastrointestinal tract, including the mouth, esophagus, stomach and intestines.
Eliminates waste from the body.
Endocrine system:
Influences the function of the body using hormones.
Integumentary system / Exocrine system:
Skin, hair, nails, sweat and other exocrine glands
Immune system and lymphatic system:
Defends the body against pathogens that may harm the body.
The system comprising a network of lymphatic vessels that carry a clear fluid called lymph.
Muscular system:
Enables the body to move using muscles.
Nervous system:
Collects and processes information from the senses via nerves and the brain and tells the muscles to contract to cause physical actions.
Renal system and Urinary system
The system where the kidneys filter blood to produce urine, and get rid of waste.
Reproductive system:
The reproductive organs required for the production of offspring.
Respiratory system:
Brings air into and out of the lungs to absorb oxygen and remove carbon dioxide.
Skeletal System:
Bones maintain the structure of the body and its organs.
Clockwise from top left: the integumentaryskeletalnervouscardiovascularendocrine and muscular systems.
Clockwise from top left: the lymphaticRespiratory systemurinary reproductive (femalemale) and digestive systems.
See also
List of distinct cell types in the adult human body
List of organs of the human body
Organ systems
Categories: Organ systemsLists of human anatomical features
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The RDAs for nutrients are set based on the dietary intakes of people who appear to be maintaining nutritional health. based on a person's height and weight. to cover the needs of 97% of the population. by the FDA for food labeling purposes.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is '' to cover the needs of 97% of the population.''
Explanation:
The Recommended Daily Allowances or RDA, by definition, correspond to the average amount of a nutrient that a healthy person must ingest daily, through diet, to maintain a correct state of health. These established values are an approximate guide to meet the needs (intake level of a sufficient nutrient) of almost all (97 to 98%) individuals in the healthy population, but may vary due to factors such as age, sex or level of activity. It must be taken into account that each nutrient has a series of functions in the body, hence the importance of knowing the approximate amount that we should consume each day and, therefore, of knowing the RDA.
steoporosis and related low bone mass affect many adults in North America, especially older women. One-third of all women experience fractures because of this disease, amounting to about 2 million bone fractures per year. Osteoporosis is a disease you can do something about. Some risk factors cannot be changed, but others, such as poor calcium intake, can. Is this true for you
Answers
Answer: This is TRUE for me. Osteoporosis is a preventable disease.
Explanation:
In this condition, bone density ( the amount of bone tissue) is reduced because it's deposition does not keep pace with resorption. Although the bone is adequately mineralised, it is fragile and microscopically abnormal, with loss of internal structure.
Peak bone mass occurs around 35 years and then gradually declines in both sexes. Lowered oestrogen levels after the menopause are associated with a period of accelerated bone loss in women. Thereafter bone density in women is less than in men for any given age. That is why in North America, one-third of all women experience fractures because of this disease, amounting to about 2 million bone fractures per year.
Common features of osteoporosis are:
--> skeletal deformity: gradual loss of height with age, caused by compression of vertebrae.
--> bone pain
--> fractures: especially of the hip ( neck of femur), wrist and vertebrae.
It is TRUE for me that some risk factors can't be changed ( which is the low oestrogen levels that occur after menopause in women) but others, such as poor calcium intake, can.
Exercise and Calcium intake during childhood and adolescence are important in determining eventual bone mass of an individual and in preventing risk of osteoporosis in later life.
Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder will likely demonstrate all of the following except __________.
a) the tendency to be impulsive
b) the need for instant gratification
c) suspicion and mistrust of others
d) restraint from becoming too intimate
The correct answer is D
Answers
Answer:
ur right its D
Please mark as brainliest if answer is right
Have a great day, be safe and healthy
Thank u
XD
The Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder does not represent the option d. restraint from becoming too intimate.
What is a personality disorder?It is the long-term pattern that should be different in a significant manner.
At the time when the individual iagnosed with a personality disorder so there is the tendency for impulsive, instant gratification, and mistrust of others.
Hence, the option d is correct.
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In the phrase "the patients urine pH level is =5" the symbol means
Answers
\(\huge\underline\mathtt\colorbox{cyan}{pH:}\)
A figure expressing the acidity or alkalinity of a solution on a logarithmic scale on which 7 is neutral, lower values are more acid and higher values more alkaline. The pH is equal to −log10 c, where c is the hydrogen ion concentration in moles per litre.
What first antibody Response to viral infections
Answers
Answer:
hello the awnser should be Fc receptors