The fact which is to be communicated to the client is the reason of heavy drinking, any type of problem in his life and how she can help with the deletion of alcohol from his life.
The nurse is facilitating a family meeting for a client who abuses alcohol. During the meeting, the nurse observes the communication and determines an unhealthy pattern of 1. use of descriptive jargon. 2. disapproval of behaviors. 3. avoidance of conflicting issues. 4. unlimited expression of nonverbal communication.
The client will work with the nurse to remain safe. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily. The client will make a personal inventory of strengths. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe. The priority goal in alcohol withdrawal is maintaining the client's safety.
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Albuterol 1.2mg po TID is ordered for a child weighing 27 lbs. The package insert
states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided
doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL. Determine the following:
Is the dosage safe
Answer:
The package insert states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL.
Explanation:
after oral administration, most absorption of the drug molecules takes place in the
After oral administration, most absorption of drug molecules takes place in the small intestine, primarily in the duodenum and jejunum regions.
Following oral administration, a drug must first pass through the stomach, where it encounters an acidic environment that can affect its solubility and stability. Once the drug reaches the small intestine, it is exposed to a more neutral pH, which typically facilitates absorption. The small intestine has a large surface area and optimal conditions for drug absorption, including a high concentration of microvilli, which increase the absorptive surface.
The duodenum and jejunum, the first two segments of the small intestine, are especially important for drug absorption due to their high blood flow and permeability. Therefore, the small intestine, primarily the duodenum and jejunum, is where most drug absorption takes place after oral administration.
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ways to survive breast cancer ?
Answer:
Explanation:
Sumaya is ordered ceftazidime PO 9mg/kg per day. Her weight is 10kg. Calculate Sumaya's dosage for the day
Answer:
Sumaya's dosage for the day is 90mg
Explanation:
Given
\(PO=9mg/kg\) --- daily
\(Weight = 10kg\)
Required
The daily dosage
To do this, we simply multiply Sumaya's weight and the dose of PO
So, we have:
\(Dosage = PO * Weight\)
\(Dosage = 9mg/kg * 10kg\)
\(Dosage = 90mg\)
The combining form of a stem word is usually made of two component parts, the ____ and ____
The combining form of a stem word is usually made of two component parts, the root and the combining vowel.
A combining form is a linguistic element that is added to the beginning or end of a word to create a new word with a different meaning. The combining form of a stem word is usually made up of two parts: the root and the combining vowel. The root is the basic, underlying word that provides the main meaning of the word, while the combining vowel is a vowel sound that is added to the root to connect it to other parts of the word.
For example, in the word "photography", the root is "photo" (meaning light) and the combining vowel is "o". When these two elements are combined, they create the combining form "photo-", which can then be added to other parts of the word to create new words like "photographer" or "photographic".
In summary, the combining form of a stem word is made up of two component parts, the root and the combining vowel. The root provides the main meaning of the word, while the combining vowel connects the root to other parts of the word to create new words with different meanings.
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Knowledge of (blank) helps identify drugs that act in a similar fashion and can be used to treat a similar condition.
1) analgesics
2) drug classes
3) anesthesia
4) antibiotics
Answer:
DRUG CLASSES
Explanation:
Knowledge of drug classes helps in identifying drugs that act in a similar fashion and can be used to treat a similar condition. Thus, the correct option is 2.
What are drug classes?A drug class is a set of medications and compounds which have a similar chemical structures and the same mechanism of action, with a related mode of action, and are widely used to treat the same kind of disease.
In several dominant drug classification systems, four types of classifications form a hierarchy of drugs. The knowledge of these drug classes helps in identifying the drugs that act in a similar fashion and can be used to treat conditions.
Therefore, the correct option is 2.
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Lenco Industries has cost of goods manufactured of $65 000 in May. The finished goods inventory at the end of May was $20 000 and the cost of goods sold during May was $75 000. The inventory in finished goods at the beginning of May was: $5000. $30 000. $10 000. $20 000
Answer:
The correct answer is:
$30,000
Explanation:
ending inventory = $20,000
sales = $75,000
Manufactured goods = $65,000
Beginning inventory = ???
1. First let us calculate the difference between the cost of goods sold and the cost of goods manufactured, in order to determine the goods from alternative sources order than manufacturing. This is done as follows:
Goods from sources other than manufacturing = (sales) - (manufactured goods)
Goods from sources other than manufacturing = 75,000 - 65,000 = $10,000
This means that out of the $75,000 worth of goods sold, $10,000 was from a source other than manufacturing which can be accurately predicted to be the beginning inventory
2. Next, to calculate the total beginning inventory, we will add the goods sold from the beginning inventory and the ending inventory.
Beginning inventory = (Goods from sources other than manufacturing ) + ending inventory
Beginning inventory = 10,000 + 20,000 = $30,000
Note, since the sales are more than the manufactured goods, the excess is from beginning inventory
The duties/procedures that a person may and may not perform under the auspices of. specific license - Duties determined by each state's laws, regulations, educational requirements, and licensing bodies
In the healthcare field, the duties and procedures that a person can perform are determined by the specific license they hold, which is regulated by state laws, regulations, educational requirements, and licensing bodies.
These licenses are designed to ensure that individuals have the necessary knowledge, skills, and training to safely and effectively perform certain duties within their scope of practice.
The scope of practice defines the boundaries of what a licensed professional is authorized to do. It outlines the specific activities, tasks, and procedures that a person can perform based on their education, training, and licensure.
It is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand their scope of practice and abide by the regulations and guidelines set forth by their licensing body. Failure to adhere to the scope of practice can result in professional and legal consequences, as it may jeopardize patient safety and violate the laws and regulations governing healthcare practice.
Healthcare professionals should regularly review and stay updated on the laws, regulations, and guidelines relevant to their practice to ensure that they are providing care within their authorized scope.
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PLEASE HELP ! Match the mental health care professional to the description provided.
thepist - animee
psychiatrist - gayle
psychgist - jamal
psyclatric- zhang
Why is it important to understand the laws of your state regarding individuals with diabetes who
drive school buses and other forms of public transportation?
Answer:
Because you may have a heart attack
Explanation:
a home health care nurse makes an initial visit to a client and determines that the client meets the criteria for services with medicare reimbursement. the nurse understands that this service will be reimbursed for which period?
The service will be reimbursed for a period of 60 days.
A home health care nurse performs an initial visit to a client and determines that the client meets the criteria for services with Medicare reimbursement. The nurse understands that this service will be reimbursed for a period of: 60 days .Medicare reimburses home health care services in 60-day episodes, provided that the client meets the eligibility criteria.After the initial visit, the nurse will assess the client’s condition and develop a plan of care for the period. The nurse will then submit documentation to Medicare for reimbursement for the services provided during that 60-day period.
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Complete question: A home health care nurse performs an initial visit to a client and determines that the client meets the criteria for services with Medicare reimbursement. The nurse understands that this service will be reimbursed for which period?
A)30 days
B)60 days
C)90 days
D)120 days
Final Exam Operations Management The following figure shows the layout of LOTUS restaurant company for its newest luxurious branch. 1- What may be the main factors considered in such layout from your study of layout principles 2- If you would suggest changes in layout to enhance some factors, what would be these changes and state reasons for this 3- What would be the key success factors in choosing the location for such branch
The main factors that should be considered in such a layout include maximum accessibility and viability.
Good layouts do not just happen, they're planned. It's essential for the design to have rhythm, unity, balance, harmony, shape, movement, etc. The main factors that should be considered in the layout include maximum visibility, accessibility, and effective use of space.
The changes in the layout to enhance certain factors will be that the tables arranged near the main entrance should be removed. The key success factors in choosing the location for such a branch will be space size, visibility, space utilization, satisfaction, and flexibility.
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2. before teaching the patient diaphragmatic breathing, in which position should the health care team member place the patient? a. side-lying position b. supine position
Before teaching the patient diaphragmatic breathing, the healthcare team member should place the patient in the C. High-Fowler position.
The high Fowler position is a specific position used in patient care, typically in a hospital or clinical setting. The position is achieved by elevating the head of the patient's bed to an angle between 60 and 90 degrees, while the patient's feet remain on the bed.
This position is commonly used for patients who have difficulty breathing or who require respiratory support. Elevating the head of the bed can improve lung expansion, decrease pressure on the diaphragm, and promote better oxygenation. It can also help to reduce swelling and discomfort in the head and neck, as well as promote better digestion and reduce the risk of aspiration.
When practicing controlled coughing, the patient should keep an upright (high-Fowler) position to help the diaphragm move and make the thorax and abdominals expand. Controlled coughing should not be attempted in the supine, side-lying, or Trendelenburg positions because these positions do not increase thorax and abdominal expansion nor do they facilitate diaphragmatic excursion.
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(Complete question)
The nurse is preparing to teach the patient diaphragmatic breathing. Into which position should the nurse assist the patient?
A. Side-lying position
B. Supine position
C. High-Fowler position
D. Trendelenburg position
what is the end product of starch digestion
Answer:
Maltose
Explanation:
Hope this helps~~ ;D
In an effort to lower her saturated fat intake, Natasha decided to make her breakfast sandwich at home. Instead of the high-fat sausage, she chooses 4 slices of organic sugar-free turkey bacon. Looking at the Nutrition Facts label, evaluate the nutrients, and explain if replacing sausage with 4 slices of turkey bacon would be a good choice for her or not. If it is a poor choice, what would be a good alternative?
Replacing sausage with 4 slices of turkey bacon would be a good choice. This is because 100 grams of sausage contains 268 calories, 18 grams of fat, 7 grams of saturated fats, and 27 grams of protein. Whereas a single slice of organic turkey bacon contains 45 calories which means 4 slices will contain 180 calories which is comparatively less than sausages. Four slices of bacon contain total saturated fat of 2 grams since a single slice contains 0.5 grams of saturated fat which is less than that of sausages. Since four slices of turkey bacon have less saturated fat it is a better option. Furthermore, compared to turkey bacon, sausages have lower levels of selenium, phosphorus, vitamin B12, and vitamin B2. Turkey bacon provides 29 percent more Selenium than sausage does for a daily need. Turkey bacon has three times as much calcium as sausage. Therefore, substituting sausage with turkey bacon is good for health.
You're welcome
Why are a patient’s vital signs checked when they enter a medical facility?
Answer:
B. to provide signs of disease or abnormality
11. Shearing is best described as:
1. Causing a bruise or discoloration
2. Pertaining to an infection
3. Cutting the lawn
4. Tearing of the skin
Cutting the lawn is one of the options provided that best describes shearing.
Option 3 is correct
What is shearing?
shearing is described as a cutting process that's defined by the use of one or more straight blades which is typically used to cut sheet metal.
Shearing in most cases requires the use of a tool that consists of a punch and one or more straight.
Metal Shearing is described as a metal fabrication process that's used to trim and remove unwanted material from sheet metal and usually involves the use of a machine or tool, such as a bench shear, to slice through sheet metal with extreme precision.
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nicotine causes the levels of (a hormone in the brain that is usually released before epinephrine/adrenaline is released) in the body to rise, and this hormone causes a person to feel pleasure or to experience a sense of being rewarded; this is very similar to what the drugs heroin and cocaine do to the brain.
In the frontal cortex, corpus striatum, and mesolimbic area, nicotine releases dopamine.
The hormone epinephrine is first released by nicotine, which further stimulates the nervous system and contributes to the "kick" of the drug's feelings of pleasure and, over time, addiction. You experience a lot of positive emotions at once when taking adrenaline. Dopamine, serotonin, nor-epinephrine, acetylcholine, gamma-aminobutyric acid, and glutamate are just a few of the neurotransmitters that are increased in release when nicotine binds to nicotinic receptors in the brain. In addition to stimulating the nicotinic receptor, cigarette smoke also has other psychoactive qualities. Smoking increases the plasma levels of prolactin, adrenocorticotrophin (ACTH), growth hormone (GH), and arginine vasopressin (AVP) in a short period of time without significantly affecting the levels of TSH, luteinizing hormone (LH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
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The above question is incomplete. Check below the complete question -
Nicotine causes the levels of (a hormone in the brain that is usually released before epinephrine/adrenaline is released) in the body to rise, and this hormone causes a person to feel pleasure or to experience a sense of being rewarded; this is very similar to what the drugs heroin and cocaine do to the brain. Explain ?
Explain why 85% of UAE residents suffer from deficiency of Vitamin D or the “Sunshine Vitamin”. What are the health risks due to this deficiency?
Answer with Explanation:
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) is a country located in the Middle East. It has a desert biome, which explains why its temperature is scorching hot. For this reason, many of the residents avoid being exposed to the sun and use air-cooling systems to avoid the heat. The sun is considered the main source of Vitamin D, also known as "Sunshine Vitamin." It can only be produced if the skin will be exposed to the sun. However, in the case of UAE, most residents don't like exposing their skin to the sun. This is the reason why they suffer from Vitamin D deficiency.
The health risks of Vitamin D deficiency are the following:
bone deformities/abnormalitiesmultiple sclerosispoor immune system, which increases the chance to have fludepression (low mood)headacheweight fluctuationWhich of the following is NOT part of a basic obstetrics kit?a. Umbilical cord clampsb. Surgical scissorsc. A baby blanketd. A packet of suture material
A packet of suture material is NOT part of a basic obstetrics kit, option (d) is correct.
Obstetrics kits are used during childbirth to assist in the safe delivery of babies. They typically contain essential items needed for a successful delivery. Umbilical cord clamps are used to clamp and cut the umbilical cord. Surgical scissors are used to cut the cord and perform episiotomies if necessary.
A baby blanket is used to provide warmth and comfort to the newborn after birth. However, a packet of suture material is not typically included in a basic obstetrics kit, as suturing is usually not required during a normal delivery. Suturing may be necessary in certain situations, but it would require additional specialized equipment, option (d) is correct.
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The question is inappropriate; the correct question is:
Which of the following is NOT part of a basic obstetrics kit?
a. Umbilical cord clamps
b. Surgical scissors
c. A baby blanket
d. A packet of suture material
which legislation governs nursing registration in nursing?
Answer:
The Nurse Practice act it is known as your nursing rulebook.
Explanation:
The Nurse Practice Act ensures that all registered nurses are qualified and competent of doing their job to the best.
"The Nurse Practice Act that you must learn, know and live by when working as a registered nurse in the USA."
Suzanne was diagnosed with lymphocytopenia. Lymphocytes are white blood cells, so which best describes Suzanne’s condition?
swelling of white blood cells
abnormally large white blood cells
low levels of white blood cells
ruptured white blood cells
Answer:
C. Low levels of white blood cells
Hehe it got 420 points.. u know what that means
An EKG technician notices an accelerated idioventricular rhythm on a tracing. Which of the following actions should the technician take next?
Answer:
Call for help and stay with the patient.
Explanation:
This is an emergent situation and the technician should call for help. The technician should stay with the patient and contact the emergency response team.
Which labeling component refers to a specific amount of food that contains the quantity of nutrients described on the Nutrition Facts label
The labeling component that refers to a specific amount of food that contains the number of nutrients described on the Nutrition Facts label is called serving. The correct answer is option e.
A serving is a specific amount of food that is standardized and commonly eaten. It may be a unit of measure, such as a cup or an ounce, or a specific quantity, such as one slice of bread or one apple.
In other words, a serving is a standardized portion of a particular food that provides the nutritional information listed on the Nutrition Facts label.
It is used to compare the nutritional values of similar foods and to determine how many servings of each nutrient are in a specific amount of food.
Thus, the serving is the correct labeling component that refers to a specific amount of food that contains the number of nutrients described on the Nutrition Facts label.
So, the correct answer is option e. serving.
The complete question is-
Which labeling component refers to a specific amount of food that contains the number of nutrients described on the Nutrition Facts label
a. menu
b. size
c. standard
d. portion
e. serving
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Which of the following phase II metabolic reactions makes phase I metabolites readily excretable in urine?
A. Oxidation.
B. Reduction.
C. Glucuronidation.
D. Hydrolysis.
E. Alcohol dehydrogenation.
Glucuronidation is the phase II metabolic reaction that makes phase I metabolites easily excreted in the urine.
Why do phase I metabolites need to be excreted in the urine?Because they are substances necessary for the organism.Because they can disrupt the body's biological processes.Phase I metabolites cannot accumulate in an organism as they can develop toxicity and prevent new biological processes from developing.
Ideally, these metabolites are eliminated from the body after they are used, but their molecular structure makes them easily trapped in the renal tubes, preventing excretion.
For this reason, Glucuronidation adds glucuronic acid to these metabolites allowing them to conjugate with water and manage to be excreted in the urine.
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If the adult dosage of medicine is 180 mg what is the 1/3 of the adult dose show the work
Answer:
60 mg
Explanation:
180/3=60
Dosage is the frequency and the amount of medication needed to be taken by a person in a day. The 1/3 of the adult dose of the medicine will be 60 mg.
What is a dose?A dose is the quantity of the drugs or medicines required to be taken by organisms as recommended and prescribed by the doctor to treat a particular disease or condition.
Given, that the dose of the medicine is 180 mg.
The 1/3 dose of the medicine will be,
180 ÷ 3 = 60 mg
Therefore, 60 mg is the 1/3 dose.
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The glenohumeral joint is where the scapula meets the humerus and what other structure?.
Explain why the arrangement of the abdominal muscles conveys added strength to the abdominal wall.
The arrangement of the abdominal muscles conveys strength to the abdominal wall because of its arrangement into layers.
The abdominal wall is composed of the muscles and structures that cover the abdominal cavity. The muscles of this zone are divided according to their location. This includes:
Internal and external abdominal obliqueTransversus muscleRectus musclePyramidalis muscleAll of these structures are arranged into layers, in this way some of these muscles can be found at a deeper level than others. This particular arrangement makes the abdominal wall to be very strong as different layers of muscles pile up.
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Describe the anatomic position where the nurse should expect to find the fundus at each time period listed below. Drops 1 cm each daya. 1-2 hours after delivery umbilicus
b. 12 hours after delivery one cm above or at level of umbilicus
c. 2 days after delivery two cm below the umbilicus
d. 7 days after delivery descends in level each day until it isn't palpable above the pubis symphysis
Option C: The time period the nurse should expect to find the fundus is 2 days after delivery two cm below the umbilicus.
The anatomic position where the nurse should expect to find the fundus at 2 days after delivery: The nurse should expect to find the fundus two cm below the umbilicus. It will continue to soften and become less palpable. By this time, the uterus should have returned to its non-pregnant size and shape, and the fundus will not be palpable anymore.It's worth noting that these are general guidelines and the location of the fundus may vary depending on the individual client's recovery and healing process. The nurse should also monitor the client for signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or retained placenta, which can affect the fundus location and the healing process.
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