a nurse is providing ongoing care for a client who has been diagnosed with migraines and who has recently been prescribed ergotamine. what assessment should the nurse prioritize in order to promote the client's safety?

Answers

Answer 1

As a nurse providing ongoing care for a client with migraines who have been prescribed ergotamine, the priority assessment should be monitoring for signs and symptoms of ergotism. Ergotamine is a vasoconstrictor medication that works by narrowing the blood vessels in the brain and reducing the intensity of migraines.

However, if the client takes too much or too frequently, it can lead to ergotism, a condition that causes severe peripheral vasoconstriction and can lead to tissue damage and gangrene. Signs of ergotism include numbness or tingling in the extremities, muscle pain, cold or pale fingers and toes, and skin discoloration.

The nurse should also assess the client's blood pressure before administering ergotamine, as it can cause hypertension. The nurse should also assess the client's history of liver or kidney disease, as ergotamine is metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys.

In addition, the nurse should inquire about the client's use of other medications, as ergotamine can interact with other drugs, such as certain antibiotics and antifungal medications.

Overall, by prioritizing the assessment of signs and symptoms of ergotism and monitoring the client's blood pressure, liver and kidney function, and medication interactions, the nurse can promote the client's safety while taking ergotamine for migraines.

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Answer 2

As a nurse providing ongoing care for a client with migraines who has recently been prescribed ergotamine, the nurse should prioritize an assessment of the client's vital signs, particularly blood pressure.

Ergotamine can cause vasoconstriction, which may increase blood pressure and put the client at risk for adverse effects such as stroke or heart attack. Therefore, monitoring the client's blood pressure regularly and ensuring it stays within safe parameters is crucial in promoting the client's safety. Additionally, the nurse should assess the client for any signs of ergotism, such as numbness, tingling, or coldness in the extremities, as well as any signs of medication overuse headache, which can occur with frequent use of ergotamine. By prioritizing these assessments, the nurse can help promote the client's safety and prevent potential complications.

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Related Questions

can a vial with multiple doses be used for more than one patient? yes or no

Answers

Answer:

no

Explanation:

thats very unsanitary

a patient is to receive 2000 ml of fluid during a 24 hour period the patient is to receive 3/4 of the fluid between 0700-1900 calculate how many ml will the patient drink during that time and how many ml per hour should the patient drink during that time

Answers

The patient will drink 1500 ml during the time between 0700-1900 and the patient should drink 125 ml per hour during that time. It is given that a patient will receive 2000 ml of fluid in a day. The patient is to receive 3/4 of the fluid between 0700-1900.

As we know, 3/4 is the same as 0.75 or 75 percent.

Therefore, the patient will drink 75 percent of 2000 ml, which is calculated below:75% of 2000 ml=1500 m

The time duration between 7 am to 7 pm is 12 hours.

Therefore, the patient will drink 1500 ml in 12 hours. The amount of fluid the patient should drink per hour can be found by dividing the total amount of fluid by the number of hours:1500 ml / 12 hours=125 ml/hour

Therefore, the patient should drink 125 ml per hour during that time.

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When transporting a radiopharmaceutical, it must be place in a -lined delivery container

A. technetium
B. lead
C. thallium
D. tungsten

Answers

Answer:

D is the answer

Explanation:

Tungsten I think hopes this helps

Which of the following hormone types is also known as a tissue hormone?

Answers

Answer: The endocrine system is made up of glands that make hormones. Hormones are the body's chemical messengers. They carry information and instructions from one set of cells to another.

The endocrine (pronounced: EN-duh-krin) system influences almost every cell, organ, and function of our bodies.

Explanation:

Answer: Prostaglandins are know as the tissue hormone.

Explanation: I hope this helps :) You've got this!

1. Describe how you would use the knowledge of contouring and highlighting to
make a round face shape appear oval.

Answers

Contour along the jaw line to make this area more prominent and balance out the middle portion of the face. Highlight under the eyes to make cheekbones really pop.

How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?

Answers

Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.

David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.

David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.

Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.

This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.

Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.

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Which of the following are types of dreams a person might have? (Check all that apply)
symbolic dreams
predictive dreams
recurring dreams
daydreams
nightmares
lucid dreams

Answers

Answer:

daydream and nightmares

According to a massive study done on the prevalence of psychological disorders in the
United States, which of the following is the most common disorder reported?

Answers

Answer:

Depression

Explanation:

Which medication should the nurse question if prescribed together with ACE inhibitors?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Morphine
C. Docusate sodium (Colace)
D. Potassium chloride (K-Dur)

Answers

If potassium chloride (K-Dur) is prescribed along with ACE inhibitors, the nurse should inquire. answer is option (d).

What is Potassium chloride ?

One potassium ion and one chlorine ion combine to form potassium chloride, a type of salt. It is a mineral that the body needs and is typically present in a variety of meals. In order to help treat a potassium deficiency, it can also be taken as a supplement.

The balance of water in the body, as well as nerve messages and muscle contractions, are all controlled by potassium chloride. Additionally, it is essential for the healthy operation of cells, tissues, and organs. It is also used to treat and prevent low blood potassium levels, which can be brought on by dehydration, a low-potassium diet, or other medical problems.

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When obtaining a health history from a patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse asks the patient specifically about a history of
A. smoking
B. alcohol use
C. diabetes mellitus
D. high-fat dietary intake

Answers

When obtaining a health history from a patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse should ask the patient specifically about their history of smoking, alcohol use, diabetes mellitus, and high-fat dietary intake.

These factors are known to increase the risk of developing acute pancreatitis, which is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pancreas that can cause severe abdominal pain and digestive issues.Smoking and alcohol use are known to increase the risk of developing pancreatitis, as they can cause damage to the pancreas and lead to inflammation. Diabetes mellitus, especially if poorly controlled, can also increase the risk of pancreatitis. Finally, high-fat dietary intake can lead to the formation of gallstones, which can block the pancreatic duct and cause inflammation. Obtaining a thorough health history can help healthcare providers identify risk factors for acute pancreatitis and provide appropriate care and education to prevent future episodes. It is important for patients to be honest and open with their healthcare providers about their health habits and lifestyle choices to ensure the best possible outcomes.

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Aaron, a healthcare worker, washed his hands, gave a patient a needle injection, and then disposed of the needle in a sharps container. Which best describes the error Aaron made in following standard precautions?

A. He should have placed the needle in the biohazards bin.
B. He should have put gloves on before working with the needle.
C. He should have contacted the CDC to report the use of a needle.
D. He should have checked the MSDS before disposing of the needle.

Answers

Answer: the answer is B

what skills do I benefit when playing a yoyo​

Answers

Answer:

a sore finger tolerence

Explanation:

You can do tricks with it

alguem aqui pode me ajudar ?

Answers

Answer:

con que

Explanation:

recent work has revealed that the most effective treatment for autism has been the use of:

Answers

Recent work has revealed that the MOST effective treatment for autism spectrum disorder has been the use of cognitive-behavioral therapy.

While cognitive behavioral therapy is sometimes used to treat specific symptoms of autism spectrum disorder  such as anxiety and obsessive compulsive behavior there is no single treatment that is considered to be the most effective for all individuals with ASD.

Treatment plans for ASD are typically individualized and may include a combination of different therapies and interventions including behavioral therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy and medications. It is important for people with ASD to receive a comprehensive assessment and treatment plan that is tailored to their unique needs and challenges.

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What are the possible consequences of maintaining the ban on asbestos?

Answers

Critics of the rule said the ban would lead to “death by regulation” and pointed to job loss and economic consequences.

true or false/ examples of specialty items in a reception area include chairs and sofas

Answers

The answer is False

specialty items include fake plants and aquariums

Reilly is a nursing assistant working with Hunter. Reilly didn't get a chance to read Hunter's chart before entering
Hunter's room. Reilly introduces himself and says he is going to take Hunter's vitals. Hunter seems to understand but
is quiet. When Reilly turns away to get equipment, he keeps talking to Hunter to make him comfortable. He notices that
when he turns away from Hunter, Hunter waves his arms until Reilly is speaking directly face-to-face. Reilly looks at
Hunter's chart and brings in an interpreter for sign language. Which kind of communication barrier did Reilly
overcome?

Answers

Answer:

A language communication barrier

Explanation:

sign LANGUAGE  :D

Which of the following target the sympathetic control of the micturituion cycle? anticholinergics that contract the detrusof drugs that relax the pelvic floor in the final stage of the micturition reflex cycle drugs that improve the storage of urine by relaxing or expanding the detrusor adrenergics that contract the detrusor

Answers

Anticholinergics that contract the detrusor and adrenergics that contract the detrusor target the sympathetic control of the micturition cycle.

These drugs work by activating sympathetic receptors and promoting the contraction of the detrusor muscle, which is involved in bladder emptying.

Anticholinergics are medications that inhibit the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for bladder contractions. By blocking cholinergic receptors, anticholinergics promote sympathetic activity and increase the contraction of the detrusor muscle, facilitating bladder emptying.

Similarly, adrenergics stimulate sympathetic receptors, leading to detrusor contraction and aiding in the micturition process.

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what is the appropriate order for the effects of data aggregation?

Answers

Data aggregation means a check on Individual health, population health and public health.

In general , the Individual health begins with the process through which data  is obtained at the smallest level, then the larger scale is collecting the population health data within specific populations, and then public health  follows the trends and analysis of health of all population .

Hence, Data aggregation is the process collecting the large pool of data for higher analysis. Public health and its improvement is based on the factors like promoting healthy lifestyles, researching disease and injury prevention and treating infectious disease.

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how do i make this into an open ended question "do you have any help?"

Answers

Answer:

yea

Explanation:

eah sorry ok man soery

I
What is the medical assistant's responsibility for
payroll and does it relate to math?

Answers

In a healthcare setting, a medical assistant's responsibilities typically do not include managing payroll.

Payroll tasks are usually handled by dedicated human resources personnel or payroll specialists within the organization. Medical assistants primarily focus on providing clinical and administrative support to healthcare professionals and ensuring smooth patient care. While math skills are essential for medical assistants, they are more often utilized in tasks such as calculating medication dosages, measuring vital signs accurately, and managing inventory levels. These math-related responsibilities directly impact patient safety and efficient healthcare delivery.

Therefore, payroll-related responsibilities generally fall outside the scope of a medical assistant's role.

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List the muscles from superficial to deep for an appendectomy incision.

Answers

The incision made in the appendix is a common surgery known as an appendectomy. The superficial to deep muscles for an appendectomy incision include the following muscles: External oblique muscle Internal oblique muscle Transversus abdominis muscle Rectus abdominis muscle

An appendectomy incision is generally made through the muscle layers of the abdomen. The abdominal muscles of the human body run from superficial to deep. These muscles are external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis. The abdominal muscles are comprised of three distinct layers. The superficial layer is composed of the external oblique and the skin. The middle layer is composed of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. The deepest layer is composed of the rectus abdominis muscle and the transversalis fascia.

The external oblique muscle is the most superficial muscle layer. It originates from the ribs and pubic bone and runs diagonally downward towards the midline. The internal oblique muscle is the middle layer and originates from the thoracolumbar fascia, the inguinal ligament, and the iliac crest. The transversus abdominis muscle is the deepest layer of muscle. It is flat and wide, originating from the iliac crest, the inguinal ligament, and the lower six ribs. Finally, the rectus abdominis is a paired muscle that runs vertically on either side of the midline.The incision for an appendectomy is typically made in the lower right side of the abdomen, through the muscle layers, to reach the appendix.

The incision goes through the superficial, middle, and deep layers of the muscles, depending on the surgeon's preference. In most cases, the external oblique muscle is cut first, followed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. The rectus abdominis muscle is then pushed to the side, and the transversalis fascia is incised. In all cases, a surgical incision must be made through all layers of the abdominal wall to reach the appendix.

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Failure to notice something that is completely visible because of a lack of attention is called

Answers

Answer:

inattentional blindness

Explanation: The statement of question is the definition

Failure to notice something that is completely visible because a lack of attention is called in-attentional blindness.

some have suggested that pose an existential threat because they remind us death is inescapable and the body is fallible.

Answers

some have suggested that older adults pose an existential threat because they remind us death is inescapable and the body is fallible.

Humans cope with deep-seated fears about their mortality through symbolic meaning constructions and corresponding value standards. We extend this viewpoint to suggest that older adults or elderly people pose an existential threat to the non-elderly because they show us all that death is unavoidable, the body is fallible, and the foundations upon which we can secure self-esteem (and handle death anxiety) are ephemeral.

According to preliminary research with older adults, seniors do not react to death reminders in the same way that their younger counterparts do.

Butler coined the phrase "ageism" in 1969. Ageism, according to his early definition, is age discrimination manifested in prejudice of one age group toward other age groups. Although ageism can be directed at younger age groups, the majority of theoretical and empirical research on ageism has concentrated on the older adults.

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the nurse is preparing to apply a roller bandage to the stump of a client who had a below-the-knee amputation. what is the nurse’s first action?

Answers

The nurse’s first action when preparing to apply a roller bandage to the stump of a client who had a below-the-knee amputation is to gather the supplies needed for the procedure, such as the bandage, tape, scissors, and any cleansing solution, and to ensure that the client is comfortable and positioned correctly for the procedure.

Below-knee amputations (BKAs) are surgical operations performed to remove the lower leg, typically as a result of diabetes or peripheral vascular disease. Roller bandages are commonly used after the surgery to provide compression to the stump and minimize the possibility of swelling, improve healing, and avoid additional trauma that could cause harm to the limb.

The following steps are taken to prepare the roller bandage for a client who has undergone a below-knee amputation: The first step in preparing the roller bandage is to gather the supplies needed for the procedure. The nurse must ensure that the client is in a comfortable and proper position for the procedure. Any required cleansing solution, tape, scissors, or additional supplies will be collected, and the roller bandage will be checked to ensure it is the proper size for the stump.

Once the nurse has gathered all the necessary supplies, the client's residual limb should be cleansed and dried properly before the bandage is applied. The nurse must ensure that the bandage is applied evenly and that the stump is appropriately covered by the bandage.

Additionally, the nurse will make certain that the bandage provides enough compression to reduce swelling and promote healing. The bandage is checked periodically to ensure that it is properly applied and that the client's stump is in good condition.

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a student nurse is assisting a registered nurse is caring for a client with deep partial thickness burns on almost 60 of the body quizlet

Answers

The student nurse is assisting the registered nurse in caring for a client with deep partial thickness burns covering almost 60% of the body.

Deep partial thickness burns covering a significant portion of the body require specialized and comprehensive care. The student nurse's role in assisting the registered nurse may involve various responsibilities such as assisting with wound care, dressing changes, and monitoring vital signs.

They may also assist in administering pain medication, providing emotional support to the client, and documenting the client's condition and progress. It is important for the student nurse to closely follow the guidance and instructions of the registered nurse.

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What is the position for PA view?

Answers

Answer:

hands placed on the posterior aspect of the hips, elbows partially flexed rolling anterior or. hands are placed around the image receptor in a hugging motion with a focus on the lateral movement of the scapulae.

Explanation:

you receive a call for a 33-year-old man with difficulty breathing. upon arrival, you begin to assess the patient, who tells you that he is hiv-positive. during the primary assessment, you should:

Answers

A client has difficulty breathing and is HIV positive, as long as the main assessment that must be done is to make sure to use sterile equipment, wear gloves and masks to prevent transmission

What is HIV?

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that damages the immune system by infecting and destroying CD4 cells. If more and more CD4 cells are destroyed, the body's immune system will weaken so that it is susceptible to various diseases.

HIV that is not treated immediately will develop into a serious condition called AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection. At this stage, the body's ability to fight infection is completely lost.

HIV which attacks the immune system makes it easier for sufferers to be exposed to opportunistic infections that attack the lungs. As a result, PLHIV will experience breathing problems or shortness of breath. So when helping HIV clients who experience shortness of breath, make sure to use gloves and a mask to prevent transmission through fluids.

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List one (1) precaution of skeletal muscle relaxants?

Answers

Cyclobenzaprine is rated B by the FDA for safety during pregnancy, making it the safest muscle relaxant to use while pregnant. Dantrolene (Dantrium). Dantrolene helps control chronic spasticity related to spinal injuries. It is also used for conditions such as stroke, multiple sclerosis, and cerebral palsy.

Your female friend has been consuming a diet low in calcium and is inactive. What nutritional deficiency disease might they be at increased risk for in the future?.

Answers

A diet low in calcium and physical inactivity can lead to osteoporosis.

Osteoporosis develops when the structure of bone tissue is altered due to excessive bone mass loss. A diet lacking in calcium and vitamin D can increase your risk for osteoporosis and fractures starting in childhood and continuing into old age.

Vitamin D and calcium are essential minerals for maintaining healthy bones and avoiding osteoporosis. Insufficient calcium intake causes the body to remove calcium from the bones, which can cause bone loss. Osteoporosis may result from this since it can thin and weaken bones.

Suitable calcium sources include: dairy products with low fat, leafy vegetables that are dark green, such bok choy, collards, and turnip greens.

Calcium absorption from the intestines depends on vitamin D. After being exposed to sunlight, it is produced in the skin. Several foods, notably fatty fish, fish oils, egg yolks, and liver, are naturally sufficient sources of vitamin D. Milk and cereals are two other foods that have been fortified with vitamin D and are excellent sources of the mineral.

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A diet lacking in calcium and vitamin D can raise your risk of osteoporosis and fractures from childhood through old life.

Osteoporosis is a condition that causes bones to become brittle, most often in the hip, back (spine), and wrist. Because you could not detect any change until a bone breaks, osteoporosis is referred to as a "silent illness." Your bones, on the other hand, have been deteriorating for many years.

A fracture is a break in the bone that can be partial or complete. There are several forms of fractures. Falls, trauma, or a direct strike or knock to the body are common causes of bone fractures. Stress fractures can be caused by overuse or repetitive actions.

A greenstick fracture, for example, is one in which the spine is bent but not shattered all the way through. A buckle fracture is caused by the crushing of two bones that have been forced into one other. A joint growth plate fracture that might result in reduced bone length.

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