The indication of the chest tube functioning properly when the nurse has connected a chest tube to suction and a water seal drainage system is: (a) Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber.
Chest tube is plastic tube, acting as a surgical drain through which fluid or air drained out of the chest. The tube is inserted into the body through the chest wall and into the pleural space. When the system where the drained fluid is being stored shows fluctuations, it indicates correct functioning of the chest tube.
Water seal chamber is the part of the chest tube system through which air exits from the pleural space upon exhalation. It also prevents the entering of air into the pleural cavity.
Therefore, the correct answer is option a.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has a chest tube connected to suction and a water seal drainage system. Which of the following indicates to the nurse that the chest tube is functioning properly?
a. Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber
b. Absence of fluid in the drainage tubing
c. Continuous bubbling within the water seal chamber
d. Equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber
Which drug works by inhibiting the flow of calcium into the smooth muscle of the blood vessels?
a. cirpofloxacin
b. atorvastatin
c. diazepam
d. amlodipine
Answer:
D. Amlodipine
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Answer:
d. amlodipine
Explanation:
The calcium channel blockers act by blocking the influx of calcium ions into vascular smooth muscle and cardiac muscle cells during membrane depolarization. Because muscle contraction is largely dependent upon influx of calcium, its inhibition causes relaxation, particularly in arterial beds.
How do I respond to these phone calls????
Answer:
is make sure you keep him warm with blankets and hot drinks and I will send a ambulance to your location
Explanation:
to be totally honest I dont truly know but that is my best guess
The instructions States inhale 1 to 2 MDI Puffs 90 to 180 mcg every 4 to 6 hours how many mcg are needed to fill this prescription per day
Answer:
The instructions States inhale 1 to 2 MDI Puffs 90 to 180 mcg every 4 to 6 hours
Explanation:
the nurse is preparing to perform a focused respiratory assessment on a client. the nurse should be cognizant of what anatomical characteristic
The nurse is getting ready to perform a focused respiratory evaluation on a client; as a result, the nurse should be aware of some anatomical characteristics, including: Where the respiratory system is located, The respiratory system's performance, The respiratory system's design and The body's respiratory system's function
A focused respiratory assessment can provide valuable information to healthcare professionals about the patient's health and respiratory status. A respiratory assessment involves a thorough examination of the chest and lungs, as well as a review of the patient's medical history. A nurse performing a respiratory assessment should be aware of certain anatomical characteristics of the respiratory system, which can help identify any potential issues or problems that the patient may be experiencing.
The nurse should be cognizant of the following anatomical characteristics when performing a focused respiratory assessment:
1. The location of the respiratory system - The respiratory system is located in the chest cavity, between the diaphragm and the clavicles.
2. The function of the respiratory system - The respiratory system is responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the body and the environment.
3. The structure of the respiratory system - The respiratory system consists of the lungs, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, and trachea.
4. The role of the respiratory system in the body - The respiratory system plays a vital role in the body's immune system, as well as in the regulation of body temperature and blood pH levels.
When performing a respiratory assessment, the nurse should evaluate the patient's respiratory rate, rhythm, depth, and effort, as well as their oxygen saturation levels. Additionally, the nurse should ask the patient about any symptoms they may be experiencing, such as coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, or chest pain. By identifying any potential issues or problems with the patient's respiratory system, the nurse can provide appropriate treatment and care to improve the patient's respiratory health.
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Psychodynamic perspective of treatment puts a focus on
Answer: Psychodynamic therapy focuses on unconscious processes as they are manifested in the client's present behavior. The goals of psychodynamic therapy are client self-awareness and understanding of the influence of the past on present behavior.
Explanation: i took test
You are driving down a street when you notice a house is on fire. A person who you
assume is the owner is sitting on the front lawn, although you cannot immediately tell if
the person is injured or just upset. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are not
on the scene-in fact, it appears that no one is even aware of the situation. You decide to
stop and help. What are the first basic steps you should take?
The first step you should take in the given situation is to call 911, so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed.
There are some basic steps in providing first aid and they include the following;
Assess the situationPlan for intervention Implement first aidEvaluate the situationFor the given scenario, after assessing the situation, you will definitely notice that the situation is a critical one. The first step to take as untrained professional is to get help before approaching the scene.
You can help by calling 911 so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed, after which you keep the person safe before the emergency team arrives.
Thus, we can conclude that the first step in the given situation is to call 911.
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Answer:
911
Explanation:
ehrclinic uses a single _________________ to store administrative and clinical data on each patient.
Ehrclinic uses a single electronic health record (EHR) to store administrative and clinical data on each patient.
An EHR is a digital version of a patient's paper chart and contains a comprehensive record of their medical history, diagnoses, medications, test results, and treatment plans. With an EHR, healthcare providers can easily access and share patient information with other providers, improving communication and collaboration in patient care.
Using a single EHR for each patient also allows for efficient data management and reduces the likelihood of errors that may occur with paper-based systems. EHRs also offer a range of features and benefits that improve patient care, such as automated reminders for preventative screenings and appointments, electronic prescribing, and secure messaging between patients and providers.
Overall, the use of a single EHR by ehrclinic enhances the quality of patient care and ensures that healthcare providers have access to accurate and comprehensive patient information to make informed clinical decisions.
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What code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant? a Z48.22 b Z48.22, Z94.0 C. N18.6 d. Z94.0'
a Z48.22 code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant.
How do aftercare codes work?When the original course of treatment for an illness has been completed but the patient still needs ongoing care for the duration of the healing or recovery process or for the long-term effects of the condition, aftercare visit codes are provided.
For patients getting ongoing treatment during the healing process or for the long-term effects of a condition, the aftercare codes (Z47-Z48) are utilised. Reminder: For following encounters, code to the individual injury with the seventh character rather than using these codes with the injury codes.
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Phlebotomists What is the primary duty?
Imagine you are a doctor trying to determine if a patient has damaged a cranial nerve or a spinal nerve. How could you best determine this? a. Spinal nerve damage should affect only reflexes. b. Spinal nerve damage should affect sensation, but not motor movements. c. Spinal nerve damage should only affect organs and glands. d. Spinal nerve damage should affect only the torso and limbs.
The best way to determine if a patient has damaged a cranial nerve or a spinal nerve is: D. Spinal nerve damage should affect only the torso and limbs.
What is the peripheral nervous system?The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is an anatomical and functional division of the nervous system that is mainly responsible for perceptual experience in living organisms.
The nerves of the PNS.In all living organisms, the PNS nerves that are involved in both sensory and somatic functions include:
Peripheral nervesCranial nervesSpinal nervesGenerally, an evidence of a damaged spinal nerve is that only the torso and limbs would be affected because they are directly linked and controlled by it.
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the prefix ab- means what?
Answer:
Explanation:
It means away
the nurse is assessing the cerebrospinal fluid (csf) analysis for a child. which laboratory finding helps the nurse to distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis?
One laboratory finding that helps the nurse to distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis is the presence of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
In bacterial meningitis, there is usually a high number of PMNs, while in viral meningitis, there are fewer PMNs and more lymphocytes. Another laboratory finding that may help to differentiate between the two is the glucose level in the CSF. In bacterial meningitis, the glucose level is often low, while in viral meningitis, it is usually normal. Additionally, the protein level in the CSF may also be elevated in both bacterial and viral meningitis. It is important for the nurse to be aware of these findings to ensure proper treatment and management for the child.
The key laboratory finding that helps a nurse distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis in a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is the white blood cell (WBC) count and differential. In bacterial meningitis, the WBC count is typically significantly elevated with a predominance of neutrophils. In contrast, viral meningitis often presents with a moderately elevated WBC count, but with a majority of lymphocytes. Additionally, bacterial meningitis usually has a higher protein concentration and lower glucose levels in the CSF compared to viral meningitis. Analyzing these factors can aid in determining the type of meningitis present in a child.
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The main post-mortem of omphalitis cases is
a.
unabsorbed of the yolk sac
b.
unabsorbed of the crop
c.
enlargement of the liver
d.
swallow of the spleen
Answer:
c
Explanation:
enlargement of the liver
SOMEONE QUICK ONLY 1 BLOOD BAG LEFT OXYGEN IS LOW BLOOD IS LEAKING HOW DO I STOP MY PATIENT FROM BLEEDING OUT!!!! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST TO BEST ANSWER PLEASE HELP
Answer:
Neither oxygen supplementation nor the blood bag is going to help your patient to stop bleeding out, or even bleed less. You need to locate the site of trauma and apply direct pressure as well as using gauze or other materials to assist in blocking the open wound depending how large it is.
Explanation: that is the explanation ^^
The EMT would use the sterile scissors found in the OB kit to cut which of the following? A) Amniotic sac (if not ruptured) B) Umbilical cord C) Towels to create a sterile field D) Patient's clothing
The EMT would use the sterile scissors found in the OB (obstetrics) kit to cut the umbilical cord. The umbilical cord is a flexible tube-like structure that connects the fetus to the placenta, which supplies oxygen and nutrients to the developing fetus. After the baby is born, the umbilical cord is clamped and cut to separate the baby from the placenta.
It is important to use sterile scissors to cut the umbilical cord to prevent infection and other complications. The OB kit typically contains a range of sterile instruments, including scissors, clamps, and forceps, as well as other supplies such as sterile towels and gloves.
The other options listed, including cutting the amniotic sac (if not ruptured), creating a sterile field with towels, or cutting the patient's clothing, would not typically require the use of sterile scissors. However, maintaining a sterile environment is important during any obstetric procedure to prevent infection and other complications.
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Também chamado de Pseudociência, o Negacionismo Científico tem utilizado Técnicas de Negação em três Áreas bastante comuns, a vacina, as sementes transgênicas e o aquecimento global. Leia os textos a seguir e identifique qual Técnica foi usada em ambos os casos para negar os fatos relatados. Negacionistas de vacinas: se o governo pode obrigar você a vacinar seus filhos, então, isso levará a um controle total do governo sobre o seu corpo e todos nós seremos microchipados; Negacionistas do aquecimento global: os cientistas nem sequer conseguem prever como vai estar o tempo amanhã, então, como podemos confiar no que dizem sobre o clima? A) Falsos especialistas. B) Falácias lógicas. C) Expectativas irreais. D) Seleção a dedo. E) Teorias da conspiração.
Answer:ad
sda
Explanation:
ada
7. Which agent is the non-narcotic found in OTC cough
medicines?
A. Albuterol
B. Codeine
C. Dextromethorphan
D. Brethine
Answer:
C. Dextromethorphan
Explanation:
The ratio 1:4 is mathematically equivalent to
2. The pituitary gland does not release any hormones
some individuals experience a normal interest in sex but choose not to engage in sexual relations. such people would be diagnosed with:
Some individuals experience a normal interest in sex but choose not to engage in sexual relations. Such individuals would not be diagnosed with any specific condition or disorder.
Choosing not to engage in sexual relations is a personal decision and can be influenced by various factors such as personal values, cultural or religious beliefs, relationship dynamics, or individual preferences.
It's important to recognize that sexual behavior and preferences can vary greatly among individuals, and as long as a person's lack of sexual activity is consensual and does not cause distress or impairment in their daily functioning, it does not necessarily warrant a diagnosis or pathology.
However, if an individual's lack of sexual activity is causing significant distress or impacting their overall well-being, it may be helpful to consult with a healthcare professional or mental health provider who can provide support and guidance tailored to their specific situation.
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a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.
What do doctors do for tachycardia?A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.
What causes tachycardia most frequently?Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.
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You are caring for a patient with a continuous basal rate PCA Infusion when the patient becomes difficult to awaken what should you do first
When caring for a patient with a continuous basal rate Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA) infusion who becomes difficult to awaken, it is important to assess the situation and take appropriate action.
Assessment of the patient's blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation levels should be done. This information will help determine the urgency of the situation and provide important data for further decision-making.
It is important to observe the patient's breathing pattern and assess for any signs of respiratory distress or obstruction.
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yes i is going on a trip this
Answer:
I- thanks
Explanation:
The nurse teaching a growth and development class to a group of parents explains that toddlers strive for a sense of what?
The nurse teaching a growth and development class to a group of parents explains that toddlers strive for a sense of autonomy.
Toddlers learn and develop rapidly,
they are in a stage of growth where they start to develop independence and a sense of self-autonomy.
The term “autonomy” refers to the ability of a person to be self-governing and to be able to act and function independently without the help of others.
Toddlers strive for independence and autonomy in all aspects of their lives,
as they seek to assert themselves and gain control over their environment.
They want to do things on their own, and they want to have a say in what happens to them.
As a result, they may refuse help from adults or refuse to do something if they do not want to.
They also assert their independence by saying “no” to everything,
which is why this stage is commonly referred to as the “terrible twos”.
Toddlers also strive for a sense of belonging and are often eager to please their parents and other caregivers.
They want to feel that they are a part of something and that they are accepted by those around them.
The nurse should encourage parents to allow their toddlers to assert their independence while providing a safe and supportive environment that helps them feel secure.
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quizlet A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a preschooler who has gastroenteritis and notes the clients potassium level is 3.2 meq L which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect
The nurse should expect the preschooler with a potassium level of 3.2 meq/L to exhibit muscle weakness and fatigue.
A potassium level of 3.2 meq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a lower than normal potassium level in the blood. Hypokalemia can lead to muscle weakness and fatigue. Potassium is essential for normal muscle and nerve function, and low levels can impair the proper functioning of muscles, including those involved in movement and respiration.
Other potential assessment findings associated with hypokalemia include cardiac dysrhythmias, constipation, and abdominal cramping. Treatment for hypokalemia typically involves increasing potassium intake through diet or supplementation under medical supervision. It is important for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels and provide appropriate interventions to address the symptoms associated with hypokalemia.
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What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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Choose among the following the most important
lab finding in nephrotic syndrome-
a) B-J protein
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypoalbuminemia
d) Hypertension
The lab finding in nephrotic syndrome is Hypoalbuminemia. Thus, option "C" is correct.
What is Nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by the excretion of too much protein in the urine.
It is usually caused by damage to the glomeruli in the kidneys. In nephrotic syndrome, the glomeruli are affected by an inflammation that allows proteins such as albumin, antithrombin or immunoglobulins to pass through the cell membrane and appear in urine (usually they don’t appear). Nephrotic syndrome causes swelling (oedema), usually in the feet and ankles, and increases the risk of other health problems.
Thus, option "C" is correct.
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Which individual is qualified to apply for the Certification Examination for Diabetes Educators?
Answer:
B) a registered nurse who works with diabetes patients
Explanation:
Diabetes is a serious disease that affects much of the population. People with this disease need to be treated and educated by a healthcare professional who has experience in treating patients with this disease.
To be a diabetes educator you must be an experienced healthcare professional who works in this field and aims to help patients better and better. For this reason, we can state that among the options shown in the question above, the one that shows someone who may request the diabetes educator certification exam is the letter B.
which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
The muscles that are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat are the gluteus medius and maximus.
How can targeted exercises help improve knee alignment ?When an individual performs a single-leg squat, knee valgus can occur due to the imbalanced strength and activation of the muscles around the hip and knee joints.
The muscles that are typically underactive with knee valgus during a single-leg squat include the gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, and the vastus medialis oblique (VMO) muscle of the quadriceps.
These muscles are responsible for stabilizing the hip and knee joints and preventing excessive inward collapse of the knee during movement. Strengthening these muscles through targeted exercises can help improve knee alignment and reduce the risk of injury.
Knee valgus is a common issue during the single-leg squat and can be caused by a variety of factors, such as weak gluteal muscles and tight hip flexors.
Some muscles that are typically underactive during knee valgus include the gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, and vastus medialis obliquus. Strengthening these muscles through targeted exercises and improving overall hip and ankle mobility can help correct knee valgus and improve single-leg squat form.
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The muscles that are typically underactive in cases of knee valgus during a single-leg squat are the gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, and vastus medialis obliquus. These muscles play a significant role in maintaining proper knee alignment and function. When they're underactive, they can lead to the inward collapse of the knee, known as knee valgus.
Explanation:In the presence of knee valgus during a single-leg squat, typically the following muscles are found to be underactive: The gluteus medius, the gluteus maximus, and the vastus medialis obliquus.
The gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are essential for hip stability and aligning the knee properly. If weak or underactive, these muscles can lead to the inward collapse of the knee, also known as knee valgus. On the other hand, the vastus medialis obliquus is a part of the quadriceps muscle group, it's role is to keep the kneecap in line and prevent it from trailing outward during movements. When this muscle is underactive it can contribute to knee valgus as well.
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Answer to the question in the picture
Answer:
the last one is the answer.
Explanation:
good luck on quiz. :)