This aspect of evaluation should include the observation of the eye's reaction when it comes into contact with a light that falls on the other eye.
What are direct and consensual responses?They are the responses of the eye to the incidence of light.It is the way to evaluate the response of the eyes to different stimuli.When the nurse observes the behavior of the eye in a light that falls directly on it, we call it a direct response. Consensus response, on the other hand, refers to the eye's response to light falling on the opposite eye.
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One important factor in the development of eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa that would be considered a biological factor are ____________.
One important factor in the development of eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa that would be considered a biological factor are family history.
Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are the two types of eating disorders often caused by psychological and environmental factors. Feeling pressure for an idealized body shape and assuming the body type to be faulty drives one to such eating disorders. But they may also be caused by some biological factors like that in heredity.
The transfer of parental characters to the offspring through genes is known as heredity. Genes, generally, carry information for specialized traits to be enhanced in offspring. But genes may also occupy some information regarding any parental disorder. Any parent having some eating disorder like anorexia nervosa or bulimia Nervosa, depression history, etc. or any mood affections are likely to transfer this to their offspring.
Offspring of some parents with eating disorders like anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa are thus more likely to suffer from these disorders than those with no such disorders.
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Which two of the following are the best ways to improve your credit score?
Apply for new credit without actually using it
Keep your balances low
Pay your bills on time
Move credit card debt around
Never pay less than the minimum amount
Answer:
1. Pay your bills on time
2. Never pay less than to the minimum amount
Explanation:
Hope this will help
The two best ways to improve your credit score are;
C. Pay your bills on time
E. Never pay less than the minimum amount.
A credit score can be defined as a numerical expression between 300 - 850 that represents an individual's financial history and credit worthiness. Therefore, a credit score determines the ability of a borrower to obtain a loan or credit from a lender (creditor) such as a financial institution.
This ultimately implies that, the higher your credit score, the higher and better it is to obtain a credit (money) from a potential lender.
FICO is an acronym for Fair Isaac Corporation, they create an accurate and reliable credit score of customers for use by lenders.
Basically, your FICO depends most on the amounts you owe and your payment history.
The ratings of a credit score by FICO include the following;
A credit score ranging from 670 to 739 is considered to be a good credit score.A credit score of 740 to 799 is better.A credit score of 800 to 850 is considered to be excellent.In conclusion, the best ways through which you can improve your credit score are;
1. You should ensure you don't pay less than the minimum amount due.
2. You should ensure you pay your bills on time or as at when due.
3. You shouldn't move credit card debt around.
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Mary Beth's sense of belonging and trust has been shaken since her second divorce. She is most often late for appointments and is very impulsive. What is Mary Beth s time focus?
Answer:present time focus
Explanation:
Following blunt force trauma to the lower right rib cage, a 40-year-old woman presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and unlabored tachypnea. You should be MOST concerned that she has a:
In the lower right rib cage, if a 40-year-old woman presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and unlabored tachypnea, you should be MOST concerned that she has a pneumothorax.
Restlessness, tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and unlabored tachypnea (rapid breathing) are common signs and symptoms of pneumothorax, which is the accumulation of air in the pleural space between the lungs and the chest wall. Blunt force trauma to the ribs can cause a rupture or puncture in the lung, leading to air leakage and subsequent collapse of the affected lung. Pneumothorax is a potentially life-threatening condition that can result in compromised oxygenation and ventilation
Immediate medical attention is required to relieve the pressure in the pleural space and reinflate the collapsed lung. It is important to note that other injuries, such as rib fractures or internal bleeding, can also occur following blunt force trauma to the chest. Therefore, a comprehensive evaluation and appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted to determine the extent of the injuries and provide timely and appropriate treatment.
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The ______ is the side of the body between the pelvis and the ribs.
-Groin
-bladder
-flank
-stomach
1. Why it is imperative the correct code is used when submitting specimens to the lab for additional testing?
2. What do you think would happen if the diagnostic code is incorrect or missing from the documentation sent to
lab with the specimen?
Answer:
Explanation:
For the first answer I looked it up and it said, "Improperly identified specimens can result in delayed diagnosis, additional laboratory testing, treatment of the wrong patient for the wrong disease, and severe transfusion reactions. Specimen identification errors have been reported to occur at rates of 0.1% to 5%." And for the second question, it said, "Transfusion-related death, medication errors, misdiagnosis, and patient mismanagement."
what are the structures of nitrogenous Bases
Answer:
Nitrogenous bases are cyclic, organic molecules that contain a carbon-nitrogen ring structure and act as a Lewis base. Nitrogenous bases are an important part of the genetic material of the cell, DNA and RNA. There are two types of nitrogenous bases, purines with two rings, and pyrimidines with one ring.
Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids and androgens are:
____ penicillin kills bacteria was discovered in 1928 by Alexander Fleming.
a.what
b.that
c.who
d.which
e.when
to obtain a scan using a(n) , a patient is injected with a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose.
Positron emission tomography (PET) is used when obtaining a scan where a patient is injected with a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose.
A positron emission tomography (PET) scan is an imaging procedure that can assist in determining how your tissues and organs operate metabolically or biochemically. A radioactive substance (tracer) is used in the PET scan to display both regular and aberrant metabolic activity.
Before a sickness manifests itself on another imaging test, such as a computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), a PET scan may frequently detect the aberrant metabolism of the tracer in disorders (MRI).
Most frequently, the tracer is injected into a vein in your hand or arm. The tracer will then gather in your body's regions with greater degrees of metabolic or biochemical activity, which frequently identifies the disease's location.
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The ability to perform movements with a full range of motion is a benefit of?
The ability to perform movements with a full range of motion is a benefit of flexibility exercises.
What is flexibility exercises(stretching)?flexibility exercises (Stretching) is a type of physical activity in which a particular muscle, tendon, or muscle group is purposefully flexed or stretched in order to increase the muscle's perceived flexibility and attain a comfortable level of muscular tone.Increased muscular control, flexibility, and range of motion are the effects.Stretching is further applied medically to relieve cramps and enhance everyday function by extending range of motion.Stretching is an instinctual and natural behavior that is carried out by humans and many other creatures in its most basic form.There may be yawning as well. After awakening from sleep, after extended periods of inactivity, or after leaving restricted rooms and regions, stretching frequently happens reflexively.To learn more about flexibility exercises, refer to the following link:
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True of False: Older adults have to be careful with glucocorticoids because they increase their risk of cataracts, osteoporosis, and diabetes.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
...
the new nurse recalls that which strategies promote evidence-based practice? (select all that apply.)
Answer:
used to complain that using guidelines results in care that is too prescribed and directed Hope this helps!
Explanation:
The evidence-based practice of nursing includes the interaction of nursing with other disciplines to bring out the evidence to the table. Thus, the correct option is E.
What is evidence-based practice?
The Evidence-based practice of nursing includes the integration of best available evidence, clinical expertise, and the patient values and all the circumstances related to patient and client management, practice management, and the health policy decision-making.
The Evidence Based Practice is a process which is used to review, analyze, and translate the latest scientific evidence related to study. The goal of this practice is to quickly incorporate the best available research, along with the clinical experience and patient preference, into clinical practice, so that nurses can make patient-care decisions.
Therefore, the correct option is E.
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The new nurse recalls that which strategies promote evidence-based practice? (Select all that apply.)
a.Collaborate with other nurses locally and globally.
b.Use sources that are only authored by nurses to stay true to nursing practice.
c.Continue to use older and outdated practices if requested by the patient and family.
d.Use and encourage use of multiple sources of evidence.
e.Interact with other disciplines to bring nursing evidence to the table.
What is the pH of a 3.5x10^-2 M solution of amine in Pka 9.6
pH=5.56
Explanation:
first need to find [H+]
3. Pt weighs 130lb. Order is to give 70mg of Medication X in 1 Liter of IV solution. Infusion rate is 0.2mg/kg/hr. How much fluid would be infused per day (Liters/day)?
Answer:
Pt weighs 130lb. Order is to give 70mg of Medication X in 1 Liter of IV solution. Infusion rate is 0.2mg/kg/hr
Explanation:
Which clinical laboratory test measures the amount of nitrogenous waste in the blood?
A.blood urea nitrogen
B.urinalysis
C.culture and sensitivity
D.creatinine clearance
The clinical laboratory test that measures the amount of nitrogenous waste in the blood is **A. blood urea nitrogen (BUN)**.
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a common laboratory test that measures the concentration of urea nitrogen in the blood. Urea is a waste product formed in the liver as a result of protein metabolism. It is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys and excreted in the urine.
Elevated levels of blood urea nitrogen can indicate impaired kidney function or other conditions that affect the excretion of waste products. It is a valuable indicator of renal function and can help diagnose and monitor various kidney disorders, such as chronic kidney disease, acute kidney injury, and dehydration.
Other laboratory tests, such as urinalysis, provide information about the presence of substances or abnormalities in the urine. Culture and sensitivity tests are performed to identify and determine the susceptibility of bacteria or other microorganisms to specific antibiotics. Creatinine clearance is a test that assesses kidney function by measuring the rate at which the kidneys clear creatinine from the blood.
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Q3) Which description most accurately defines EEG frequency and amplitude?
O Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave oscillates per second. The
amplitude is the time of the waveform measured from 0 seconds. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (UV).
O Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second.
Frequency is also known as a measure of EEG power. The amplitude is the height or peak measurement of the
cycle measured from time 0 seconds. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (uV) and reflects EEG control.
O Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second. The
amplitude is the circumference of the waveform as measured from the baseline. Amplitude is measured in
micro-volts (UV) and typically divided into alpha, beta, gamma and theta.
O Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second. The
amplitude is the height or peak measurement of the cycle as measured from the baseline. Amplitude is
measured in micro-volts (UV) and also known as power.
O All of the above
Answer:
O. Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second. Frequency is also known as a measure of EEG power.
The amplitude is the height or peak measurement of the cycle measured from time 0 seconds. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (uV) and reflects EEG control.
Explanation:
EEG frequency is a term commonly used in the medical field to measure the pulse rat of the brain as well as to diagonise epilepsy. This could be found through the abnomalities in the EEG readings when taken.
O. Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second. Frequency is also known as a measure of EEG power whereas the amplitude is the height measurement of the cycle measured from time 0 seconds. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (uV) and reflects EEG control.
The electroencephalogram (EEG) is the representation of the electrical activity occurring at the surface of the brain. Frequency is a main characteristic that is used to define normal or abnormal EEG rhythms. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (uV) and reflects EEG control.
While on the other hand, he amplitude of the EEG pattern is the strength of the pattern represented in microvolts of electrical energy. The amplitude of the EEG increases as the frequency decreases so we can conclude that frequency is measured in hertz whereas amplitude is measured in macro-volt.
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Blood is taken from veins not from arteries. Why?
what is added into the small intestine to emulsify dietary fats?
“In terms of muscle actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps and hamstrings are”
Answer:
antagonist.
and the question before that is C. Sarcomeres
Explanation:
The quadriceps and the hamstrings are antagonists to each other in their actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps, and hamstrings.
What movement at the knee do the hamstring muscles perform?The function of this hamstring is to flex your knee, extend the thigh at your hip and rotate your lower leg from side to side when your knee is bent.
What is the relationship between the quadriceps and hamstrings in the knee?Many muscles acting on the thigh have their insertions around the knee. The quadriceps femoris muscle is the principal muscle involved in knee extension5, 6). The principal muscles involved in knee flexion are the hamstring muscle group5).
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what should be covered by a pocket-mask or bag-mask
A pocket-mask or bag-mask should cover the nose and mouth.
A pocket-mask or bag-mask is a device used for providing rescue breaths during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). It consists of a mask that is designed to create an airtight seal over the nose and mouth of the person receiving rescue breaths. The purpose of the mask is to prevent the direct contact between the rescuer's mouth and the individual's mouth, while allowing the rescuer to deliver oxygen or exhaled air into the person's lungs. The mask covers both the nose and mouth to ensure an effective seal and efficient delivery of breaths. This helps maintain proper airway management and ventilation during CPR, increasing the chances of successful resuscitation.
A pocket mask is a small portable device used in the pre-hospital setting to provide adequate ventilation to a patient whom is either in respiratory failure or cardiac arrest. The pocket mask is designed to be placed over the face of the patient, thus creating a seal enclosing both the mouth and nose.
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what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes
The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.
A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.
When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.
By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and we can prevent them in future.
A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.
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If a refill request is denied, you must contact the?
Answer:
You can call your doctor's office and ask to approve the refill over the phone. Some pharmacies can also do this for you. For instance, you can call your local pharmacy and ask them to contact your doctor to approve a refill.
If a refill request is denied, you must contact the prescribing healthcare provider or physician.
When a refill request is denied, it means that the healthcare provider or physician has determined that the prescription should not be refilled for various reasons. To address this situation, it is necessary to communicate directly with the prescribing healthcare provider or physician to understand the reason for the denial and discuss any alternatives or necessary adjustments to the medication regimen.
Contacting the prescribing healthcare provider allows for clarification, further assessment, or discussion of alternative treatment options, if applicable. They have the authority to make decisions regarding medication refills based on their medical expertise and the specific needs of the patient.
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Which are lung conditions? Check all that apply.
silicosis
Obyssinosis
anthracosis
sleep apnea syndromes
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
dyspnea
Answer:
all of the above
Explanation:
your welcome my dawg
Answer:
1 silicosis
2 byssinosis
3 anthracosis
Explanation:
Can a psychiatric nurse practitioner prescribe medication.
Answer:
Psychiatric nurse practitioners do many of the same things a psychiatrist does, including diagnosing mental illness and prescribing medication.
Explanation:
Cardiorespiratory fitness, measured as VO2 max in mL/kg/min (maximum oxygen consumption), is associated with increased longevity. Recent evidence suggests that higher fitness increases the life span. Those with a low VO2 max have a life expectancy after 60 years of 7 years, those with moderate VO2 max of 15 years, and those with a high VO2 max have a life expectancy after 60 of 23 years. Which of the causal criteria is illustrated with this example
The casual criterion that is being illustrated in the question above is the strength of association.
We can arrive at this answer because:
The strength of association is the term that defines the moment when two variables change to the same degree and at the same time.In the example shown in the question above, we can see that as VO2 max increases, life expectancy increases with the same degree, being an example of the strength of association.With this, we can state that the amount of VO2 max that an organism presents is essential to maintain the organism's functionality at adequate levels, promoting a healthy biological adaptation as the individual's age increases.
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What is meant by IV Therapy?
Answer:
a way to give fluids, medicine, nutrition, or blood directly into the blood stream through a vein
Explanation:
Answer:
IV therapy is a medical technique in which medicine is administered to the patient through tissues and blood vessels.
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what action used to clean or remove gross debris from surgical instruments in the ultrasonic cleaner
the patient has a platelet count of 3,000. when he complains of joint pains, the nurse should instruct him to:
As stated in the preceding statement He should be told to take two acetaminophen tablets by the nurse.
What functions do platelets serve for the body?Their primary duty is to stop bleeding and prevent it. The system sends messages to platelets that direct them to the affected location when a blood artery is damaged. When the platelets reach the wound, they congregate to form a thrombus that aids in stopping the bleeding.
What occurs if platelets are elevated?Blood clots may arise in your blood arteries if your blood levels is excessive. Your body's blood flow may be obstructed by this. A higher platelet count that has not been brought on by another medical illness is referred to as thrombocythemia. Some people refer to this disorder as primary or essential thrombocythemia.
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You are using a resuscitation mask to give ventilations to a child. After you position and seal the mask, which of the following should you do next?Select one:a. Blow into the mask.b. Tilt the victim's head back to open the airway.c. Place the victim's head in a neutral position to maintain an open airway.d. Place the victim in a recovery position.
Option C ; Place the victim's head in a neutral position to maintain an open airway.
After positioning and sealing the resuscitation mask, the next step is to place the victim's head in a neutral position to maintain an open airway. This is done by aligning the axis of the victim's face with the axis of the spine, with the head in a neutral position. This technique is referred to as the "head-tilt, chin-lift" maneuver. This maneuver should be done gently to avoid hyperextending the neck, which can compromise the airway. Blowing into the mask is the next step after the head is in the neutral position and the airway is open. Tilt the head back or placing the victim in a recovery position is not the next step after you position and seal the mask. You should perform these actions only after you have started ventilations and the victim is breathing.
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