A new graduate is exploring various options in public health nursing employment. the nurse recognizes a major difference between a rural and metropolitan setting is determined by which factor?

Answers

Answer 1

B) Complexity is the major difference between a rural and metropolitan setting factor.

After graduation, nurses have a wide range of options. There are several things to think about when determining where to apply for a job.

The decision of whether to work in an urban or rural setting is one of the most important ones. Each site has advantages and disadvantages that may suit some nurses better than others. Additionally, each environment will have its own traits and needs.

Urban is described as "the area around a city" and comprises large concentrations of residential and commercial structures as well as transportation facilities.

Rural, which may be broadly described as "the country," includes significant quantities of undeveloped terrain and places with less than 2,500 inhabitants or 500 inhabitants per square mile.

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Question correction:

A new graduate is exploring various options in public health nursing employment. The nurse recognizes a major difference between a rural and metropolitan setting is determined by which factor.

A) Federal legislation

B) Complexity

C) State legislation

D) Leadership


Related Questions

Which of the following statements about developing a personal fitness program is NOT true?
A.
When developing a personal fitness program, it is important to implement strategies that will help maintain the program as well as give it a successful start.
B.
Personal factors such as age, health concerns, and likes are important to consider when developing a personal fitness program.
C.
The starting skill level of the physical activities included in a personal fitness program should be determined from other individuals' fitness programs.
D.
The FITT principle should be used when developing a personal fitness program.



Please select the best answer from the choices provided.


A
B
C
D

Answer was C

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Your are right that C would be correct since your physical activities in your fitness plans should be determined by your fitness and NOT by other individual's fitness since they do not have the same physique and skills as you.

The correct answer is actually C so I think you got it

What is the rationale for performing sponge, needle, and instrument counts in the operating room?
A) The hospital is not liable if a client is injured due to a retained sponge or instrument.
B) The nursing student is liable for client injuries due to a retained sponge or instrument.
C) A nurse is responsible for performing sponge and instrument counts as a part of routine surgical standards.
D) The primary healthcare provider is responsible for providing an accurate count of sponges and instruments.

Answers

It is essential to perform and document these counts accurately before and after surgery to ensure patient safety. Option (C) is the correct answer.

The rationale for performing sponge, needle, and instrument counts in the operating room is to prevent retained foreign objects in the surgical wound or body cavity, which can cause serious harm or even death to the patient.

These counts are a standard safety measure that all healthcare providers involved in the surgical procedure are responsible for performing, including the surgeon, surgical technologist, and circulating nurse. Inaccurate counts can result in unnecessary diagnostic tests, additional surgical procedures, and malpractice lawsuits.

The counts are performed at specific times during the surgery, such as before the incision is made, before the closure of the cavity, and before the final closure of the surgical incision.

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"Health education helps to be free from fatal diseases." Justify this statement with your logic.​

Answers

Explanation:

it helps to know about preventive curative measures of disease

we can be safe

hi want to text i am board

Answers

Answer: sureeeee

My explanation:

Which of the following statements is supported by research on the stability of temperament?
A)Long-term prediction from early temperament is best achieved after age three.
B)Temperament does not develop as the child ages.
C)Most irritable infants become difficult children as they age.
D)Childhood temperament is a fairly good predictor of personality in adulthood.

Answers

D). Childhood temperament predicts future personality formation.

Research has shown that certain aspects of temperament, such as positive and negative emotionality, can be relatively stable across a person's lifetime and influence their personality development. The correct option is : D) Childhood temperament is a fairly good predictor of personality in adulthood.

D) Childhood temperament is a fairly good predictor of personality in adulthood. This statement is supported by research on the stability of temperament. Studies have shown that certain aspects of temperament, such as emotionality and activity level, remain relatively stable from infancy through adulthood.

However, it is important to note that temperament can be influenced by environmental factors and experiences throughout life.

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how to prepare three course meal for an adult in Ghana

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

A three-course meal traditionally consists of appetiser, entree and dessert. A mistake that many people make is mixing too many styles of cuisine. If you're cooking Italian for example, make sure each course matches that theme. hope this helps

It is impossible to overdose on over-the-counter drugs.
A.
True
B.
False

Answers

False. It is possible to overdose on over-the-counter drugs.

Answer:

B. False

Explanation:

Most drugs you can overdose on.

Why do I Stress And What Causes it??

Answers

Your emotions like anxiety, depression

Answer:

you stress because you overthink things and then you get overwhelmed and start stressing.

Explanation:

I hope this answers your question. Stop stressing bros.

Wes has not learned that the sports facilities he uses are shared by all the people in the community. He treats the basketball court with little respect just as he does his own bedroom at home. Coach knows Wes doesn't think about his actions in regard to keeping the facilities in tip-top shape because he:


A) Changes into his practice sneakers before stepping onto the court
B) Puts away the floor mop after volunteering to sweep the floor
C) Leaves a trail of wet mud behind as he walks from the door onto the court
D) Reminds another player to wipe his feet as he is entering the gym


PLS HELP THIS IS A FINAL EXAM QUESTION WRONG ANSWER WILL BE REPORTED!

Answers

Wes doesn't think about his actions in regard to keeping the facilities in tip-top shape because he leaves a trail of wet mud behind as he walks from the door onto the basketball court.

Wes should be taught to keep the sports facilities clean as it is shared by all the people in the community. He must treat the basketball court with respect and should change his wet shoes before entering the court.

It must be ensured that the court is cleaned regularly by the cleaning staff and everybody in the community should be strictly instructed to maintain the cleanliness of the court.

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Why might stress prevent a person from achieving wellness?

Stress has negative effects on physical and mental health.

Stress takes away time that people could be spending on prevention.

Stress makes people not want to achieve wellness.

Answers

Answer:

Stress has negative effects on physical and mental health.

Explanation:

Stress is present in our everyday life all the time. There is a lot of things that we can stress about during our lives and in every age group, there are many factors that can produce stress. This stress puts us in a bad mood and can take a toll on our mental and physical health. It can wear us out, cause changes like high blood pressure, and can really mess with our mental health. Sometimes stress itself becomes something that we stress about.

In alphabetic filing, a patient’s first name is the __________ filing unit.

Answers

In alphabetic filing, a patient's first name is the  Second filling unit

What is Alphabetic filing ?

Alphabetic filing is the arrangement of files or documents based on the alphabets of the name of persons that owns the files. A patients's surname is usually considered first in Alphabetic filing therefore the first name comes in the second filing unit during filing.

Hence we can conclude that In alphabetic filing, a patient's first name is the  Second filling unit.

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Watershed, Distilled, or Aquifier water is pure.

Answers

Distilled water should be the purest of the three.

Answer:

Distilled water is pure.

   Explanation:

Distilled water is a type of purified water that is essentially free from contaminants. The distillation process removes fluoride and natural minerals found in drinking water.

Watershed, Distilled, or Aquifier water is pure.

what is hybrid computer?​

Answers

Answer:

A hybrid is a cross between an analogue computer and a digital computer. The digital part is a controller which specialises in logical and numerical components. The analogue solves complex equations and mathematical problems.

Explanation:

the analogue processes data with measurements.

the digital processes with symbolic numbers which represent results.

a hybrid is a cross between the two, using both digital and analogue.

hope this helps:)

Hybrid computers are computers that exhibit features of analog computers and digital computers. The digital component normally serves as the controller and provides logical and numerical operations, while the analog component often serves as a solver of differential equations and other mathematically complex problems.

On the food label
a Information belongs to 1 serving
b Information belongs to the whole container
c Ingredients are found in a ascending order of their weight d Proteins are the first to be listed among the other macronutrients

Answers

Ingredients are found in a ascending order of their weight. Therefore, option (C) is correct.

The components are often listed on food labels in ascending weight order. Accordingly, the ingredients are listed in descending order of weight, starting with the one with the highest weight or quantity in the final result.

This enables customers to understand the relative ratios of the various substances used in the product. It's vital to keep in mind that this only pertains to the ingredients part of the food label and may not apply to serving size or other nutritional details.

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Match the mental health care professional to the description provided.

Jamal prescribes a 50 mg dose of an antidepressant for a patient experiencing lethargy and feelings of worthlessness. Aimee works with registered nurses to provide a safe environment for all patients. Zhang meets with anxiety sufferers two times each month for a group session. Gayle uses her PhD in psychology to conduct academic research about the causes of schizophrenia.

therapist
psychiatrist
psychologist
psychiatric technician ​

Match the mental health care professional to the description provided. Jamal prescribes a 50 mg dose

Answers

Jamal is a psychiatrist,
Aimee is a psychiatric tech.
Zhang is a therapist
Gayle is a psychologist

a 67 year old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and withou tap ulse. you an da second rescurer begin performing high-waulity cpr. when should rescuers withc positions during cpr

Answers

Rescuers should swap positions every two minutes, or roughly every fifth cycle, while performing high-quality CPR.

Rescuer fatigue can be avoided and good chest compressions can be maintained. To reduce any breaks in chest compressions, the changeover should be seamless and continuous. Both verbal communication and the use of visual cues like a metronome or timer can be used to coordinate the change in positions. In order to maintain the consistency of chest compressions and maximise the possibilities of restoring circulation, it is crucial to guarantee a smooth transfer of responsibilities between rescuers. Keep in mind that continuous chest compressions are essential to giving the unresponsive person the best chance of survival.

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Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly.
Which acronym (abbreviation) completes the sentence given below?
In the United States, the .....

Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly.Which acronym (abbreviation) completes

Answers

Answer:

AVMA

Explanation:

The Veterinarian's Oath was adopted by the American Veterinary Medical Association's House of Delegates July 1969, and amended by the AVMA Executive Board, November 1999 and December 2010. ... I will practice my profession conscientiously, with dignity, and in keeping with the principles of veterinary medical ethics.

(source: https://en.wikipedia.org)

(I just woke up so I am praying this is right)

what is the most common manifestation of social anxiety disorder?***

Answers

Social anxiety disorder, also known as social phobia, is a common mental health condition characterized by intense fear and discomfort in social situations.

The most common manifestation of social anxiety disorder is a persistent fear of being judged, embarrassed, or humiliated in public. This fear can lead to avoidance of social situations, resulting in significant distress and impaired functioning in daily life.
Individuals with social anxiety disorder may experience physical symptoms such as blushing, sweating, trembling, nausea, and difficulty speaking. Additionally, they may struggle with feelings of self-consciousness, worry, and negative thoughts about themselves and their social interactions. These symptoms can make it difficult for people with social anxiety to form and maintain relationships, both personally and professionally.Social anxiety disorder, also known as social phobia, is a common mental health condition characterized by intense fear and discomfort in social situations. Treatment for social anxiety disorder typically involves a combination of therapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), and medication. CBT helps individuals challenge and change negative thought patterns while developing coping strategies for social situations. Medications, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can help alleviate the symptoms and improve overall functioning. Early intervention and treatment are crucial to minimize the impact of social anxiety disorder on an individual's life.
In conclusion, the most common manifestation of social anxiety disorder is the persistent fear of being judged, embarrassed, or humiliated in public, which can lead to avoidance of social situations and negatively impact an individual's quality of life.

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explain why the differences-of-means estimator, applied to data from a randomized controlled experiment, is an estimator of the treatment effect.

Answers

The differences-of-means estimator, applied to data from a randomized controlled experiment, is an estimator of the treatment effect because it compares the average outcomes of the treatment group and the control group.

The difference between these two means is the estimated treatment effect. By randomly assigning participants to the treatment and control groups, we can be confident that any differences in the outcomes are due to the treatment and not other factors. This allows us to estimate the treatment effect accurately.

Here is a step-by-step explanation of how the differences-of-means estimator works:


1. Randomly assign participants to a treatment group and a control group.
2. Administer the treatment to the treatment group and do not administer it to the control group.
3. Measure the outcomes of both groups.
4. Calculate the mean outcome for the treatment group and the mean outcome for the control group.
5. Subtract the mean outcome of the control group from the mean outcome of the treatment group. This difference is the estimated treatment effect.

In conclusion, the differences-of-means estimator is an estimator of the treatment effect because it compares the average outcomes of the treatment and control groups, and the difference between these two means is the estimated treatment effect.

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Premarital counseling is often provided by a licensed therapist. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. T/F

Answers

True. Premarital counseling is often provided by a licensed therapist.

Premarital counseling is a type of therapy that helps couples prepare for marriage by addressing any potential challenges or issues that may arise in the relationship. It can be a helpful way for couples to communicate and work through any issues before committing to marriage. Licensed therapists, such as licensed clinical social workers, licensed professional counselors, or licensed marriage and family therapists, are typically trained to provide this type of counseling. They can help couples develop communication and problem-solving skills, address any conflicts or concerns, and strengthen their relationship before marriage.

what is a product that that can be ingested to give a person’s body more of a specific nutrient??

Answers

Answer:

b12?

Explanation:

not 100% sure

The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel consist of O A. nerve cells in the brain. O B. ganglion cells C. rods and cones. O D. bipolar cells.

Answers

The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel consist of nerve cells in the brain.(A)

Hubel and Wiesel discovered that there are specific nerve cells in the brain, known as feature detectors, that respond to certain visual stimuli, such as lines, angles, and movement. These cells play a crucial role in processing visual information by selectively responding to specific aspects of the stimuli.

They are located in the primary visual cortex, which is responsible for the initial processing of visual input from the eyes.

Feature detectors are different from ganglion cells, bipolar cells, rods, and cones, which are part of the retina and have other roles in the visual system, such as converting light into neural signals and transmitting these signals to the brain.(A)

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How is decision making related to learning about how human sexuality works?explain

what does it mean to be Stewards of the body? explain plsss​

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Not to modify someone just from girl or by but to understand them mentally and refering them to ¨them/they¨ and proably asking them in which do they refer by

Your vegan female friend who suffers from heavy periods each month and consumes a diet very high in whole grains should do the following to increase iron in her blood. a. cook in copper skillet, cook with tomatoes, eat more spinach b. cook in iron skillet, cook with zucchini, eat more whole grains c. cook in copper skillet, cook with sweet potatoes, eat more spinach d. cook in iron skillet, cook with tomatoes, eat less whole grains

Answers

To increase iron in her blood, she should cook in iron skillet, cook with tomatoes, eat less whole grains. Option D

Why should her best move be to cook in iron skillet, cook with tomatoes, eat less whole grains?

It is known that cooking in an iron skillet can help increase dietary iron. Tomatoes, is a goo source  vitamin C. Vitamin C will help her to enhance iron absorption.

It is important for her to reduce the consumption of whole grain since it is know to decrease phytates, and likely can inhibit iron absorption.

This combination can help your vegan friend improve her iron levels while addressing her heavy periods.

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2. It is assumed that the mean systolic blood pressure is = 120mmHg. In the Honolulu Heart Study, a sample of n = 400 people had an average systolic blood pressure of 130.1 mm Hg with a sample standard deviation of 21.21 mm Hg Is the group significantly different from the regular population?

Answers

In the hypothesis testing of the sample with the population mean with known population standard deviation, the z-score is used.

The hypothesis tests can be 1-tailed or 2-tailed. A 1-tailed test is one in which we are looking for an increase or decrease in the population mean and the other tail has no meaning in the context of the study.In the given case, the mean systolic blood pressure is 120mmHg. We need to check whether the group is significantly different from the regular population.

Here n=400,\($\overline{X}$=130.1 mm Hg, and s=21.21 mm Hg.Hypothesis:H0: $\mu$ = 120 mm HgH1: $\mu$ ≠ 120 mm Hg\)

The test statistic for the sample with population mean with known population standard deviation is given by,   \(z=$\frac{\overline{X}-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}}$   \\\\Here, $\overline{X}$=130.1 mm Hg, $\mu$=120 mm Hg, $\sigma$=21.21 mm Hg, and n=400\).The

\($\frac{130.1-120}{\frac{21.21}{\sqrt{400}}}$=19.1\)

value of the test statistic, z=

Since the value of the test statistic is greater than the critical value, we reject the null hypothesis. Hence, we can conclude that the group is significantly different from the regular population.

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Manuel’s doctor is concerned with his blood pressure readings. What is MOST likely to be concerning about Manuel’s results? A. His systolic blood pressure is higher than 80. B. His diastolic blood pressure is 120. C. His blood pressure is 115/75. D. His systolic blood pressure is less than 100.

Answers

It is essential to monitor and regulate one's blood pressure to maintain a healthy body and lifestyle. If a patient's blood pressure is consistently high, a doctor may recommend lifestyle changes, medication, or a combination of both to lower their blood pressure.

Manuel's doctor is concerned about his blood pressure readings. A blood pressure reading consists of two numbers: systolic and diastolic blood pressure. The systolic pressure is the higher number that measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart muscle contracts.

The diastolic pressure is the lower number that measures the pressure in the arteries between heartbeats. Blood pressure is determined by a variety of factors, including the amount of blood the heart pumps, the resistance of the blood vessels to blood flow, and the volume of blood in the circulatory system. When there is a problem with any of these factors, the blood pressure can increase, leading to various health issues.

In this case, the answer is B. His diastolic blood pressure is 120. Manuel's diastolic blood pressure is dangerously high, which is cause for concern. A normal blood pressure reading is typically less than 120/80 mm Hg, with the diastolic pressure less than 80.

A reading of 120/80 mm Hg or higher is considered prehypertension, which can increase the risk of developing hypertension or high blood pressure. High blood pressure can lead to a variety of health problems, including heart disease, stroke, kidney disease, and even death.

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Click to select factors that can influence hydration status.Obesity.Inactivity.Excessive alcohol intake.Excessive salt intake.

Answers

There are several factors that can influence hydration status. One of these is obesity, which can increase the risk of dehydration due to a higher percentage of body fat compared to lean body mass.

Inactivity can also impact hydration status as physical activity can increase sweat and fluid losses. Excessive alcohol intake can cause dehydration as alcohol has a diuretic effect, which can increase urine production and lead to fluid loss.

Excessive salt intake can also impact hydration status as salt can lead to increased thirst and fluid retention, which can cause dehydration if not enough water is consumed to balance the sodium levels. It's important to monitor these factors and maintain adequate hydration levels to promote optimal health and prevent dehydration-related complications.

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what is the definiton of gastroenteritis​

Answers

inflammation of the stomach and intestines, typically resulting from bacterial toxins or viral infection and causing vomiting and diarrhea. Gastroenteritis is an inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines. The main symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea.

Gastroenteritis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, which includes the stomach and small and large intestines. It is commonly referred to as "stomach flu" or "stomach virus," although it is not caused by the influenza virus. Gastroenteritis can be caused by a variety of factors, including viruses, bacteria, parasites, and toxins. The symptoms of gastroenteritis typically include diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, nausea, and fever. The condition can range in severity from mild to severe, and it is usually self-limiting, meaning that it resolves on its own within a few days without the need for medical treatment. However, in some cases, particularly in young children, the elderly, and people with weakened immune systems, gastroenteritis can lead to serious complications such as dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and malnutrition.

Kinda need this answer :/
What is defined as an action involving the voluntary transfer of energy?

energy
anabolism
metabolism
work

Answers

Answer:

An action involving the voluntary transfer of energy is an anabolism

Watch this 13-minute video that discusses the history of soccer and how it became a sport.


While you are watching the video, try to answer the following questions.

1.What century was the earliest known football played? 1869
2.When was the first football association created and rules written down? 1863
3.When did the first football tournament take place? 1930
4.When was the first international football match? 1872
5.In what year did the FA decide that teams needed to swap halves at half time? 1877
6.When were nets introduced to soccer on the goals? 1892
7.When was football introduced to the Olympics? 1900
8.Who was Pele and how old was he when he played in the tournament? 1957 and age 14
9.Who were the two best players in the late 2000s? Lionel Messi and Ronaldinho

Answers

Answer:

1. On November 6, 1869, Rutgers and Princeton played what was billed as the first college football game. However, it wasn't until the 1880s that a great rugby player from Yale, Walter Camp, pioneered rules changes that slowly transformed rugby into the new game of American Football.

2. In December 1863 the founding members of The Football Association met to finalize the rules of football at a tavern in Lincoln's Inn Fields in London. The handwritten text is still in existence and is in the hands of The Football Association. The original rules of soccer follow.

3. In 1929, it was decided that the first ever World Cup would take place in Uruguay from 13 July to 30 July 1930. Thirteen nations would be participating after accepting invitations – no qualifications took place

4. Very fittingly, the match was to be played on St Andrew's Day 30th November 1872 at the West of Scotland Cricket Ground in Partick; with admission into the ground costing a shilling (ladies were admitted free). Above: The only surviving ticket of the Scotland v England match in our Museum.

5. The expression 'it's a game of two halves' is well-known and often used for football, but ... Indeed, even the concept of changing end at half-time

6. The 1892 FA Cup final between West Bromwich Albion and Aston Villa became the first to use both a crossbar and nets Championship Runner up: 1892 FA Cup Final

7. In 1900 and 1904, football was introduced as an exhibition sport and became the first team sport included in the Olympic Games. Since 1908, the sport has been held at every Olympic Games with the exception of the 1932 Los Angeles Games.

8. Spotted from a young age, Pelé began playing for Santos Futebol Clube at just 15, his national team at 16, and won his first World Cup at 17.

9. Paolo Maldini. Andres Iniesta. Thierry Henry. Cristiano Ronaldo. Zinedine Zidane. Ronaldo. If not for injuries, we could be talking about Ronaldo Nazario as the GOAT. Ronaldinho. The man who brought so much joy to millions of people around the world. Lionel Messi. Of course.

Explanation:

I really Hopes this helps! :<

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