A job pays $10.00 and hour today. If the same percentage applies to income as well, how much would that job have paid in 1955?

in Dallas, Texas to be classified as extremely wet, the amount of precipitation that must fall is approximately 4.74 inches.

To find the amount of precipitation that must fall in April for it to be classified as extremely wet, we need to find the z-score that corresponds to the upper 5% of the normal distribution.

Using a standard normal distribution table, we can find that the z-score corresponding to the upper 5% is approximately 1.645.

Now we can use the formula z = (x - μ) / σ, where z is the z-score, x is the amount of precipitation, μ is the mean (3.2 inches), and σ is the standard deviation (0.9 inches).

Plugging in the values, we get:

1.645 = (x - 3.2) / 0.9

Solving for x, we get:

x = 3.2 + 1.645 * 0.9

x = 4.7425

Therefore, for April in Dallas, Texas to be classified as extremely wet, the amount of precipitation that must fall is approximately 4.74 inches.
To determine the amount of precipitation required for April to be classified as extremely wet in Dallas, Texas, we need to find the value at the 95th percentile of the normal distribution, since the upper 5% corresponds to extremely wet conditions. The average precipitation is 3.2 inches, and the standard deviation is 0.9 inches.

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Answer:

242,000

Step-by-step explanation:

241,639 is close to 242,000

The six means you round up because 5 and up means round up and 4 and down means you round down.

pls stay safe

Hopefully this helps you

pls mark brainlest

Answer:242000

Step-by-step explanation:

1

and look one place to the right for the rounding digit 66 Round up if this number is greater than or equal to 55 and round down if it is less than 55

242000

Answer:

a  c   d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

ACD

Step-by-step explanation:

$13320 is the value of the camper after 5 years.

The slope of the line is the ratio of the rise to the run, or rise divided by the run. It describes the steepness of line in the coordinate plane.

The slope intercept form of a line is y=mx+b, where m is slope and b is the y intercept.

The slope of line passing through two points (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) is

m=y₂-y₁/x₂-x₁

m=23680-29600/3-2

=-5920

Now let us find the y intercept

37000=-5920(1)+b

b=37000+5920

b=42920

y=-5920(5)+42920

=-29600+42920

y=13320

Hence, $13320 is the value of the camper after 5 years.

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The price of the European derivative instrument on IBM is approximately $212.80.

Based on the graph, we can see that the payoff of the derivative instrument is capped at 200, regardless of the price of IBM at the maturity date.

Therefore, the premium of this derivative security should be lower than the spot price of IBM, as the potential upside is limited.

To price the derivative instrument using a binomial tree, we first need to calculate the up and down factors:

u = e(σ * √Δt) = e(0.25 * √(3/6)) = 1.35914

d = 1/u = 0.73516

where σ is the volatility, Δt is the time step, and u and d are the up and down factors, respectively.

Next, we calculate the risk-neutral probability of an up move:

p = (e(r * Δt) - d) / (u - d) = (e(0.04 * 3/6) - 0.73516) / (1.35914 - 0.73516)

= 0.57348

Expected payoff at node (2, 1) = 200

Expected payoff at node (2, 2) = 44.16

Expected payoff at node (2, 3) = 44.16

Expected payoff at node (3, 1) = 57.76

Expected payoff at node (3, 2) = 57.76

Expected payoff at node (3, 3) = 32.04

Expected payoff at node (4, 1) = 75.68

Expected payoff at node (4, 2) = 44.16

Expected payoff at node (4, 3) = 32.04

Expected payoff at node (5, 1) = 108.36

Expected payoff at node (5, 2) = 57.76

Expected payoff at node (6, 1) = 158.28

Where r is the risk-free interest rate and p is the risk-neutral probability of an up move.

The expected payoff at each node can be calculated using the risk-neutral probabilities and the corresponding payoffs:

At node 5, the expected payoff is:

0.4575 * 0 + 0.5425 * (120 + 2 * (1.25 * 154 – 120)) = 212.80

At node 4, the expected payoff is:

0.4278 * 0 + 0.5722 * (120 + 2 * (1.25 * 136 – 120)) = 199.13

At node 3, the expected payoff is:

0.4008 * 0 + 0.5992 * (120 + 2 * (1.25 * 120 – 120)) = 185.58

At node 2, the expected payoff is:

0.3766 * 0 + 0.6234 * (120 + 2 * (1.25 * 105 – 120)) = 172.98

At node 1, the expected payoff is:

0.3549 * 0 + 0.6451 * (120 + 2 * (1.25 * 92 – 120)) = 161.27

At node 0, the expected payoff is:

0.3354 * 0 + 0.6646 * (1.25 * 80) = 83.07

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Answer: False

Step-by-step explanation:

The first term equal to the function x=1

Answer:

The answer is 70

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you do parentheses, 15-4, which is 11. According to PEMDAS, multiplication comes before addition so you do 11 x 6, which is 66. Finally, add 4 to 66, and you get the answer of 70.

Answer:

-$1.9

Step-by-step explanation:

The sample size used in the analysis was 300 sales calls for the given standard error.

The standard error (SE) is a statistical sample population's approximate standard deviation. The difference between the population's computed mean and one that is widely regarded as correct is described by the standard error. The standard error tends to be reduced the more data points included in the mean computations.

Given that, Lori obtains a book adoption on 20%, and the proportion of 0.400.

The Standard error is given as:

SE = √[p(1-p)/n]

Rearranging for n we have:

n = p(1-p)/(SE²)

n = 0.20(1-0.20)/(0.0400)²

n = 300.25

Hence, the sample size used in the analysis was 300 sales calls.

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The complete question is:

Answer:

The sum of 25 and 16 is 41.

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of two numbers, 25 and 16, you can break apart the addends and add them separately to simplify the process. Here's how you can do it:

Break apart the numbers into their place values: For 25, you have 20 and 5, and for 16, you have 10 and 6. This step helps you work with the place values individually.

Add the tens place: In this case, you have 20 (from 25) and 10 (from 16). Adding them gives you 30.

Add the ones place: Now you add the ones place, which is 5 (from 25) and 6 (from 16). Adding them gives you 11.

Combine the sum of the tens place and the sum of the ones place: Take the sum of 30 (from step 2) and 11 (from step 3). Adding them together gives you 41.

So, the sun is 41.

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Step-by-step explanation:

I assume it means the task is filled completely.

diameter = 2.1 m

therefore, radius = diameter/2 = 2.1/2 = 1.05 m

height = 4 m

volume of a cylinder is

ground area × height, so

pi×r² × height = pi×1.05²×4 = 13.8544236... m³

1 cm³ is 1g

for 1 kg (remember, "k" stands for "kilo" and means 1000) we need therefore 1000 cm³ (which is a cube of 10 cm side length).

how many cm³ are in 13.8544236... m³ ?

1 m = 100 cm

1 m² = 1 m × 1 m = 100×100 = 10,000 cm²

1 m³ = 1 m × 1 m × 1 m = 100×100×100 = 1,000,000 cm³

that means a factor of 1,000,000 !

so, the volume of the cylinder is

13.8544236... × 1,000,000 = 13,854,423.6... cm³

to get the mass of kg of that much water we need now to divide by 1000 :

13,854,423.6... / 1000 = 13,854.4236... kg

which is, by the way, 13.8544236... tons.

yes, 1 m³ of water is 1 ton ...

I don't know, if you need to round the result.

if you e.g. only need full kg, then the answer would be

13,854 kg.

Answer:

7 17/99

Step-by-step explanation:

The net return, in this case, is -$3,650, indicating a negative return. A negative net return suggests that the investment is not profitable and results in a loss of $3,650.

The net return can be calculated by multiplying the price and yield, and then subtracting the cost. In this scenario, with a price of $350, yield of 11 tons, and a cost of $7,500, the net return is calculated as follows:

Net Return = (Price * Yield) - Cost

= ($350 * 11) - $7,500

= $3,850 - $7,500

= -$3,650

The net return in this case is -$3,650, indicating a negative return. This means that the cost of $7,500 exceeds the revenue generated from the given price and yield values of $3,850. A negative net return suggests that the investment is not profitable and results in a loss of $3,650. It is important to consider these financial aspects when making decisions related to pricing, yield, and cost in order to achieve positive net returns and profitability.

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Answer:

33.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: add my intagram Its_yo_boy_Jonathan65

Step-by-step explanation:

No, you can’t multiply a monomial and binomial together and have a product of a monomial.

The correct antiderivative for dy/dx - 1/x^2+1 is option D, In(x^2+1)+C.

The term "anti" in antiderivative refers to the opposite operation of differentiation, which means finding the function whose derivative is given.

The given function's derivative is dy/dx - 1/x^2+1, and option D represents the antiderivative of this function.

Option A is incorrect because it does not have the -1/x^2+1 term, option B is incorrect because it has a 2x term instead of -1/x^2+1, and option C is incorrect because its derivative is 1/(x^2+1) instead of dy/dx - 1/x^2+1.

Hence the antiderivative for dy/dx - 1/x^2+1 is  In(x^2+1)+C.

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sas its sas oof hope this helps

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

Not for sure sorry but i think its D or A so so sorry

Answer:

SA = 384 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming we're finding surface area:

SA of top of large cube: 8(8) - 4(4) = 48 in²

SA of sides of large cube: 4(8)(8) = 256 in²

SA of exposed faces of small cube: 5(4)(4) = 80 in²

Total = 48 + 256 + 80 = 384 = ∑SA

Answer:

-7x(to the power of 2)-2x-16

Explanation:

The probability that an employee of the company is single or has a college degree is 7/5 or 1.4.

The probability that an employee of the company is single or has a college degree can be calculated using the principle of inclusion-exclusion.

From the given information, we know that there are 600 employees in total, 400 of whom have college degrees and 100 of whom are single. We are also given that 60 employees are both single and college graduates.

To find the probability that an employee is single or has a college degree, we can add the probabilities of being single and having a college degree and then subtract the probability of being both single and a college graduate, since we would be counting those employees twice.

Let's denote the event of an employee being single as S, and the event of an employee having a college degree as C. Using these notations, we can calculate the probability as follows:

P(S or C) = P(S) + P(C) - P(S and C)

P(S or C) = 100/600 + 400/600 - 60/600

P(S or C) = 1/6 + 2/3 - 1/10

P(S or C) = 5/10 + 10/10 - 1/10

P(S or C) = 14/10

P(S or C) = 7/5

Therefore, the probability that an employee of the company is single or has a college degree is 7/5 or 1.4.

In other words, there is a 1.4 probability that a randomly selected employee is either single or has a college degree.

To understand the calculation, we can break it down into individual probabilities. Out of the 600 employees, 100 are single, which gives us a probability of 100/600 or 1/6. Additionally, out of the 600 employees, 400 have college degrees, so the probability of having a college degree is 400/600 or 2/3.

However, if we simply add these probabilities, we would be counting the employees who are both single and college graduates twice. To correct this, we need to subtract the probability of being both single and a college graduate. From the given information, we know that there are 60 employees who fall into this category, which gives us a probability of 60/600 or 1/10.

By applying the principle of inclusion-exclusion, we add the probabilities of being single and having a college degree, and then subtract the probability of being both single and a college graduate to obtain the final probability of 7/5 or 1.4.

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The boundary lines are y > -3x + 4: dotted line and  y <= 8x + 1: solid line

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

y > -3x + 4

y <= 8x + 1

The boundary line for the inequality "<" is a dotted line, which means that the endpoint is not included in the solution set.

The boundary line for the inequality ">=" is a solid line, which means that the endpoint is included in the solution set.

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a)  The velocity at time t is (π/2)cos(π*t/2)

b) The velocity after 2 seconds is 0

c) At the time of 1/2, 3/2, and 5/2 the particle moving in the positive direction

d) The particle moving in the positive direction are 4 < t < 6

e) The particle travels a total distance of 2 feet in the first 6 seconds.

f) The rate of change of velocity with respect to time.

g) The acceleration after 3 seconds is -π²/4

h) The particle accelerating in the positive direction in the first 6 seconds at 5 < t < 6

i) The particle is speeding up in the positive direction during this time interval.

a) To find the velocity at any given time, we need to take the derivative of the position equation with respect to time. In this case, we have s(t) = sin(π*t/2), so the velocity is given by:

v(t) = ds/dt = (π/2)cos(π*t/2)

b) To find the velocity after 2 seconds, we simply plug in t = 2 into the velocity equation:

v(2) = (π/2)cos(π*2/2) = 0

This means that the particle is not moving at 2 seconds.

c) To find when the particle is at rest in the first six seconds, we need to find the values of t where the velocity is equal to zero. We can set the velocity equation equal to zero and solve for t:

(π/2)cos(π*t/2) = 0

cos(π*t/2) = 0

This occurs when π*t/2 = (n + 1/2)π, where n is any integer. Solving for t, we get:

t = (2n + 1)/2

We want to find the values of t that satisfy this equation and are between 0 and 6. These values are:

t = 1/2, 3/2, 5/2

So the particle is at rest at these times.

d) To find when the particle is moving in the positive direction, we need to look at the velocity equation. If the velocity is positive, the particle is moving in the positive direction. We can see from the velocity equation that cos(π*t/2) is positive when 0 < t < 2 and when 4 < t < 6. This means that the particle is moving in the positive direction during these time intervals.

e) To find the total distance traveled in the first 6 seconds, we need to integrate the absolute value of the velocity over the time interval [0,6]. This gives us the total distance traveled, since the absolute value of velocity tells us how fast the particle is moving regardless of direction. The integral is:

distance = ∫|v(t)|dt, from 0 to 6

= ∫(π/2)|cos(π*t/2)|dt, from 0 to 6

= 2

f) Acceleration is a measure of how fast the velocity of an object is changing over time.  To find the acceleration at any given time, we need to take the derivative of the velocity equation with respect to time:

a(t) = dv/dt = (-π²/4)sin(π*t/2)

g) To find the acceleration after 3 seconds, we simply plug in t = 3 into the acceleration equation:

a(3) = (-π²/4)sin(π*3/2) = -π²/4

h) To find when the particle is accelerating in the positive direction in the first 6 seconds, we need to look at the acceleration equation. If the acceleration is positive, the particle is accelerating in the positive direction. We can see from the acceleration equation that sin(pi*t/2) is negative when 1 < t < 3 and when 5 < t < 6. This means that the particle is accelerating in the positive direction during these time intervals.

i) To find when the particle is speeding up in the positive direction in the first 6 seconds, we need to look at the acceleration equation again. If the acceleration is positive and the velocity is also positive, then the particle is speeding up in the positive direction.

We can see from the velocity equation that cos(pit/2) is positive when 0 < t < 2 and when 4 < t < 6. We can also see from the acceleration equation that sin(pit/2) is negative when 1 < t < 3 and when 5 < t < 6. This means that the particle is both moving and accelerating in the positive direction during the time interval 0 < t < 2.

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Step-by-step explanation:

10p = 30

or, 10*3 = 30

Therefore , the value of p should be 3 to make the statement true.

Write the original equation.                                      10p = 30

Undo multiplication by dividing each side by 10.    10p/10 = 30/20

Simplify.                          p = 3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Linda sold 14

John sold 29 which is 14 two times plus one

29+14=43

Answer:

\( - x - 3\)

Step-by-step explanation:

1) regroup term.

\( - \frac{1}{2} (8x - 4) + 3x - 5\)

2) Simplify 1/2 ( 8x - 4 ) to 8x - 4/2.

\( - \frac{8x - 4}{2} + 3x - 5\)

3) Factor out the common term 4.

\( - \frac{4(2x - 1)}{2} + 3x - 5\)

4) Simplify 4( 2x - 1 ) / 2 to 2( 2x - 1).

\( - 2(2x - 1) + 3x - 5\)

5) Expand by distributing terms.

\( - (4x - 2) + 3x - 5\)

6) Remove parentheses.

\( - 4x + 2 + 3x - 5\)

6) Collect like terms.

\(( - 4x + 3x) + (2 - 5)\)

8) Simplify.

\( - x - 3\)

Therefor, the answer is -x - 3.

Answer:

20      6      12      38

5      20      7       32

25     26     19      70

Answer:the answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

i just it right

Answer:

its b

Step-by-step explanation: