A gas stream is placed into contact with an adsorbent material at temperature T. Sites are available within the material to adsorb up to nmax moles of gas, but the pressure P of the gas stream is such that, at equilibrium, half the adsorption sites in the material are occupied and half of them are empty. Heat (specifically in the form of isosteric heat of adsorption) is released during the adsorption process, although it can be assumed that such heat is conducted to the surroundings sufficiently quickly that any temperature rise is negligible. (b) Suppose now that the pressure Pin the gas is doubled, which causes the number of moles n of gas adsorbed to increase, thereby leading to additional heat release. Determine this additional heat of adsorption released, and comment on the significance of this answer in respect of additional heat release for yet further increases in pressure. [6 marks] (c) Is there an upper limit on the amount of heat released even in the case of arbitrarily large pressures? Explain your answer. [2 marks]

Answers

Answer 1

Doubling the pressure results in additional adsorption, which releases heat. Assume the initial pressure was P and the number of moles of gas adsorbed was n, which has increased by an amount δn after the pressure was doubled.

The amount of heat absorbed during the adsorption of δn moles of gas isδH = δnQads, where Qads is the isosteric heat of adsorption. To calculate δn, we utilize the adsorption isotherm, which states that the quantity of gas adsorbed per unit weight of adsorbent, w, is proportional to the equilibrium pressure and may be described by the Langmuir adsorption.

This is the additional heat of adsorption released as a result of doubling the pressure. The significance of this answer is that the additional heat of adsorption increases as the pressure rises. This implies that as the pressure continues to grow, so does the heat of adsorption. The total amount of heat produced during adsorption may be very significant for gases with large adsorption enthalpies, such as hydrogen, and it may result in hazardous situations if the process is not handled with caution.

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Related Questions

If you know you are at risk of becoming unemployed, you should _____.
a.
wait until you officially lose the job to worry
b.
get additional education to learn new skills
c.
spend all your money while you are still making it
d.
ignore the economy, because it is always changing


Please select the best answer from the choices provided

Answers

b. get additional education to learn new skills

what is the mda and visibility criteria for a straight-in loc/dme rwy 21 approach at portland international in a category b airplane? a. 700 ft. msl; visibility 1 nm. b. 1,120 ft. msl; visibility 1 sm. c. 700 ft. msl; visibility 1 sm.

Answers

b. 1,120 ft. MSL; visibility 1 sm.

According to the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Instrument Procedures Handbook, the minimum descent altitude (MDA) for a straight-in localizer/distance measuring equipment (LOC/DME) runway 21 approach at Portland International Airport in a category B airplane would be 1,120 feet above mean sea level (MSL). The visibility requirement for this approach would be 1 statute mile (SM). Therefore, the correct answer to your question is: b. 1,120 ft. MSL; visibility 1 sm.

MDA INFORMATION

It's important to note that the MDA and visibility requirements for an approach can vary depending on the specific approach being flown and the equipment available at the airport. It's also worth mentioning that the MDA and visibility requirements must be met to fly the approach. If the actual conditions at the airport are below these minimums, the approach cannot be flown, and the pilot must either execute a missed approach or proceed to an alternate airport.

The minimum descent altitude (MDA) is the lowest altitude that an aircraft is allowed to descend to during an instrument approach. It is typically expressed in feet above mean sea level (MSL) and is established to provide the pilot with an apparent visual reference of the approach path and the surrounding terrain. The MDA is determined based on the type of approach being flown and the equipment available at the airport.

The MDA is not a decision altitude (DA), which is the altitude at which the pilot must decide to either land or execute a missed approach. The DA is typically higher than the MDA and is based on the height of obstacles in the approach path. It's important to note that the MDA is a minimum altitude, and the pilot is not required to descend to the MDA unless it is safe to do so. If the pilot cannot see the runway or the required visual references at the MDA, a missed approach must be executed. In other words, the MDA is the minimum altitude that must be maintained during an instrument approach unless the pilot can see the runway or the required visual references, in which case the pilot may continue the approach and land.

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The quantity of bricks required increases with the surface area of the wall, but the thickness of a masonry wall does not affect the total quantity of bricks used in the wall

True or False

Answers

Answer:

false

Explanation:

False is the answer:)!

Q1. How are things organized in a directory server? By a series of nested groups By a hierarchical model of objects and containers By a flat text file By a relational database structure Q.2 What roles does a directory server play in centralized management? Check all that apply. Centralized authentication Confidentiality Accounting AuthorizationQ3. What are the three ways to authenticate to an LDAP server? Anonymous bind SASL Simple bind PGP Q4. In Active Directory, a Domain Controller functions as which of the following? Check all that apply. A DNS server A container A Kerberos authentication server A server that holds a replica of the Active Directory database Q5. In order to authenticate user accounts against AD, what must be done to the computer first? Join it to the domain Enable the administrator account Configure the firewall Configure remote logging Q6. When there are conflicting GPOs, what's the order in which they're evaluated and applied? Site, OU, Domain OU, Domain, Site Site, Domain, OU OU, Site, Domain Q7. Instead of assigning access for each user account individually, ________ is a more efficient and easier-to-manage approach. Centralized Authentication Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) Active Directory LDAP Q8. Which component of an LDAP entry contains the unique entry name? Common name Organizational unit Distinguished name Q9. What would you use if you wanted to set a default wallpaper background for all machines in your company, but still wanted users to be able to set their own wallpaper? A policy A preference Q10. A client discovers the address of a domain controller by making a DNS query for which record? A record AAAA record SRV record TXT record

Answers

A1.    By a hierarchical model of objects and containers

A2.   Centralized authentication, Accounting, Authorization

A3.   Anonymous bind, SASL, Simple bind

A4.   A DNS server, A Kerberos authentication server, A server that holds    

        a replica of the Active Directory database.

A5.   Join it to the domain

A6.   Site, Domain, OU

A7.   Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

A8.   Distinguished name of an LDAP entry contains the unique entry  

        name.

A9.   A preference

A10.  SRV record

What is hierarchical model?

A hierarchical model is one where lower levels are organized under a hierarchy of progressively higher level units.

Making statistical inferences using hierarchical models is based on the fundamental principle that inferences about one quantity have an impact on those made about another.

The observations are regarded as independent in general linear models. Because the observations are organized into groups called clusters that have a commonality of characteristics, hierarchical models differ from other types of models.

For instance, if we were to examine the worldviews of children in a particular town, we might discover that youngsters from similar socioeconomic and cultural backgrounds are more likely than those from very different backgrounds to share opinions and beliefs with their immediate family members and peers.

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A wedge would be best described as
A wheel and axle used to cTeate a rotary motion
A lever arm fixed to a shaft
A triangle shaped tool that functions as an inclined plane
A rectangular shaped tool that functions as a pulley

Answers

The answer is

C. A triangle shaped tool that functions as an incline ld plane

Answer:

A rectangular shaped tool that functions as a pulley.

Explanation:

i beleive

what is the distance in term of wavelengh between successive minima in the standing wave ratio​

Answers

Answer:

hi there

Explanation:

An ideal vapor-compression refrigeration cycle that uses refrigerant-134a as its working fluid maintains a condenser at 800 kPa and the evaporator at −12°C. Determine this system's COP and the amount of power required to service a 150 kW cooling load.

Answers

Answer:

COP = 4.846

Explanation:

From the table A-11 i attached, we can find the entropy for the state 1 at -12°C.

h1 = 243.3 KJ/Kg

s1 = 0.93911 KJ/Kg.K

From table A-12 attached we can do the same for states 3 and 4 but just enthalpy at 800 KPa.

h3 = h4 = hf = 95.47 KJ/Kg

For state 2, we can calculate the enthalpy from table A-13 attached using interpolation at 800 KPa and the condition s2 = s1. We have;

h2 = 273.81 KJ/Kg

The power would be determined from the energy balance in state 1-2 where the mass flow rate will be expressed through the energy balance in state 4-1.

W' = m'(h2 - h1)

W' = Q'_L((h2 - h1)/(h1 - h4))

Where Q'_L = 150 kW

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

W' = 150((273.81 - 243.3)/(243.3 - 95.46))

W' = 30.956 Kw

Formula foe COP is;

COP = Q'_L/W'

COP = 150/30.956

COP = 4.846

An ideal vapor-compression refrigeration cycle that uses refrigerant-134a as its working fluid maintains
An ideal vapor-compression refrigeration cycle that uses refrigerant-134a as its working fluid maintains
An ideal vapor-compression refrigeration cycle that uses refrigerant-134a as its working fluid maintains

Question 2 Resilience engineering is concerned with adverse external events that can lead to system failure. Resilient systems are flexible and adaptable so that they can cope with the unexpected. As a software engineer you need to educate system developers of four characteristics as outlined by Hollnagel (2010) that reflect the resilience of an organisation. Make sure to also include an example for each characteristic

Answers

These four characteristics, as outlined by Hollnagel (2010), are critical in developing resilient systems that can cope with unexpected situations and adverse external events. Software engineers must educate system developers about these characteristics to develop more resilient systems.

Resilience engineering is about developing adaptable systems that can handle unexpected situations and are able to cope with the effects of adverse external events that might cause system failure. As a software engineer, you need to inform system developers about the following four characteristics that reflect the resilience of an organization, as described by Hollnagel (2010):Maintainability: This characteristic reflects the degree to which a system can be maintained or repaired after it has been damaged. In other words, it assesses the system's ability to remain in good working order or quickly recover from damage. An example of maintainability would be the ability to quickly repair an engine that has been damaged during an accident.Flexibility: This characteristic reflects the degree to which a system can be modified or adapted to cope with changing circumstances. Flexibility is essential for resilience because it enables a system to respond to new challenges and adapt to different circumstances. An example of flexibility would be the ability to change the specifications of a car to adapt to different driving conditions.Redundancy: This characteristic reflects the degree to which a system can continue to function even if some of its components fail. Redundancy is important because it ensures that the system can continue to operate even if one or more components are not working properly. An example of redundancy would be having a backup generator in case the primary generator fails.Responsiveness: This characteristic reflects the degree to which a system can respond to changing circumstances or threats. Responsiveness is important because it enables a system to quickly and effectively respond to unexpected events. An example of responsiveness would be the ability of an air traffic control system to quickly respond to changing weather conditions to ensure the safety of airplanes in the area.

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What kind of plan or development of road can be done to avoid traffic?​

Answers

Answer: Breakdown Lanes

Reason: With breakdown lanes when a car needs to stop it can go to the backdown lane and fix its issue.

What are the main factors contributing to the generation of heat in resistance welding (ideally explain based on equation)

Answers

Answer:

Q=I^2Rt

Explanation:

The principle of resistance welding is the Joule heating law where the heat Q is generated depending on three basic factors as expressed in the following formula

Q=I^2Rt

I is the current passing through the metal combination

R is the resistance of the base metals and the contact interfaces

t is the duration/time of the current flow.

a circuit contains four capacitors connected in parallel. The values of the capacitors are 0.1 microfarads, 0.6 microfarads 1.0 microfarads and 0.05 microfarads. what is the total capacitance of this circuit. A.0.46 Microfarads B. 1.75Microfarads C.1.25Microfarads D0.42Microfarads

Answers

Answer:

B.  1.75 microfarads

Explanation:

When capacitors are connected in parallel, the total capacitance is equivalent to the sum of each individual capacitor's capacitance.

With this in mind, we have the values, 0.1, 0.6, 1.0, and 0.05, all microfarads.  So simply, we need to sum these values.

0.1 + 0.6 + 1.0 + 0.05

= 0.7 + 1.0 + 0.05

= 1.7 + 0.05

= 1.75

So the total capacitance for this circuit would be 1.75 microfarads.

Cheers.

what document is the primary reference document when making ethical decisions?​

Answers

The one that has Ben cited the most and which most directly relates to the topic it is pertaining to.

please help me solve this​

please help me solve this

Answers

Answer:

Following are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

\(\to \Sigma F_x = ma_x \\\\\to 3200 t^2 -440 (9.81) (\frac{8}{17}) = 440 (a) \\\\\to 3200 t^2 -2031.24 = 440 (a)\\\\\to a= 7.27t^2 -4.616\\\\\to dv=a.dt \\\\\to \int^{v}_{2} dv = \int^{2}_{0} (7.27t^2 -4.616) dt\\\\\to v-2 = 7.27 \frac{t^3}{3} - 4.616 t^{2}_{0}\\\\\to v-2 = 7.27 \frac{2^3}{3} - 4.616 {2} \\\\\to v-2 = 10.154\\\\\to v= 12.154 \ \frac{m}{s}\\\)

Which of the following most accurately describes an institutional conflict of interest?

Answers

Answer:

Defined as a situation in which the financial investments or holdings of Stanford University or the personal financial interests or holdings of institutional leaders might affect or reasonably appear to affect institutional processes for the design, conduct, reporting, review, or oversight of human subjects research.

determine the required size of standard schedule 40 steel pipe to carry 192 m3/hour of water with a minimum velocity of 6.0m/sec

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

To determine the required size of standard schedule 40 steel pipe to carry 192 m³/hour of water with a minimum velocity of 6.0 m/sec, we can use the following formula:

Q = A × v

where Q is the volumetric flow rate of water, A is the cross-sectional area of the pipe, and v is the velocity of water.

First, we need to convert the volumetric flow rate from m³/hour to m³/sec.

192 m³/hour = 0.0533 m³/sec

Next, we can rearrange the formula to solve for the cross-sectional area:

A = Q / v

A = 0.0533 m³/sec / 6.0 m/sec

A = 0.0089 m²

The cross-sectional area of the pipe is 0.0089 m².

Standard schedule 40 steel pipe has a nominal inside diameter (ID) of 1.049 inches, which is approximately 0.0266 meters. The cross-sectional area of the pipe can be calculated using the formula for the area of a circle:

A = π × (ID/2)²

A = 3.14 × (0.0266/2)²

A = 5.58×10^-4 m²

To determine the required size of the pipe, we can rearrange the formula for the area of a circle to solve for the diameter:

ID = 2 × √(A/π)

ID = 2 × √(0.0089/π)

ID = 0.106 meters

Therefore, the required size of standard schedule 40 steel pipe to carry 192 m³/hour of water with a minimum velocity of 6.0 m/sec is a nominal size of 4 inches, with an inside diameter of 0.102 meters (or 102 millimeters).

what mathematical path do all spacecraft follow

Answers

All spacecraft follow a mathematical path called an "orbit." An orbit is the curved path of a celestial object or spacecraft around a star, planet, or moon, especially a periodic elliptical revolution.

This path is determined by the gravitational forces between the spacecraft and the celestial body it is orbiting.

The mathematical path of an orbit can be calculated using Newton's laws of motion and the law of universal gravitation. By understanding the mathematical path of an orbit, scientists and engineers can accurately predict the trajectory of a spacecraft and plan its mission.

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Problem 3. The uniform beam is supported by two rods AB and CD that have cross-sectional areas of 10 mm2 and 15mm2, respectively. Determine the intensity w of the distributed load so that the average normal stress in each rod does not exceed 300 kPa.

Answers

Answer:

hello the diagram related to your question is missing attached below is the required diagram.

The value of AC = 6m

answer 2.25 N

Explanation:

From the diagram attached below

average intensity of loading = w/2

Total load due to linearly varying load = \(\frac{wL}{2}\)

w = maximum intensity of load , L = span of varying load

since AC = 6m( L )  then

Total load due to linearly varying load  = 3w  ------ ( 1 )

attached below is the detailed solution of the given problem

Problem 3. The uniform beam is supported by two rods AB and CD that have cross-sectional areas of 10
Problem 3. The uniform beam is supported by two rods AB and CD that have cross-sectional areas of 10

Steam at 5 MPa and 400 C enters a nozzle steadily with a velocity of 80 m/s, and it leavesat 2 MPa and 300 C. The inlet area of the nozzle is 50 cm2, and heat is being lost at a rateof 120 kJ/s. Determine the following:
a) the mass flow rateof the steam.
b) the exit velocity of the steam.
c) the exitarea of the nozzle.

Answers

Answer:

a) the mass flow rate of the steam is  \(\mathbf{m_1 =6.92 \ kg/s}\)

b) the exit velocity of the steam  is \(\mathbf{V_2 = 562.7 \ m/s}\)

c) the exit area of the nozzle is  \(A_2\) = 0.0015435 m²

Explanation:

Given that:

A steam with 5 MPa and 400° C enters a nozzle steadily

So;

Inlet:

\(P_1 =\) 5 MPa

\(T_1\) = 400° C

Velocity V = 80 m/s

Exit:

\(P_2 =\) 2 MPa

\(T_2\) = 300° C

From the properties of steam tables  at \(P_1 =\) 5 MPa and \(T_1\) = 400° C we obtain the following properties for enthalpy h and the speed v

\(h_1 = 3196.7 \ kJ/kg \\ \\ v_1 = 0.057838 \ m^3/kg\)

From the properties of steam tables  at \(P_2 =\) 2 MPa and \(T_1\) = 300° C we obtain the following properties for enthalpy h and the speed v

\(h_2 = 3024.2 \ kJ/kg \\ \\ v_2= 0.12551 \ m^3/kg\)

Inlet Area of the nozzle = 50 cm²

Heat lost Q = 120 kJ/s

We are to determine the following:

a) the mass flow rate of the steam.

From the system in a steady flow state;

\(m_1=m_2=m_3\)

Thus

\(m_1 =\dfrac{V_1 \times A_1}{v_1}\)

\(m_1 =\dfrac{80 \ m/s \times 50 \times 10 ^{-4} \ m^2}{0.057838 \ m^3/kg}\)

\(m_1 =\dfrac{0.4 }{0.057838 }\)

\(\mathbf{m_1 =6.92 \ kg/s}\)

b) the exit velocity of the steam.

Using Energy Balance equation:

\(\Delta E _{system} = E_{in}-E_{out}\)

In a steady flow process;

\(\Delta E _{system} = 0\)

\(E_{in} = E_{out}\)

\(m(h_1 + \dfrac{V_1^2}{2})\) \(= Q_{out} + m (h_2 + \dfrac{V_2^2}{2})\)

\(- Q_{out} = m (h_2 - h_1 + \dfrac{V_2^2-V^2_1}{2})\)

\(- 120 kJ/s = 6.92 \ kg/s (3024.2 -3196.7 + \dfrac{V_2^2- 80 m/s^2}{2}) \times (\dfrac{1 \ kJ/kg}{1000 \ m^2/s^2})\)

\(- 120 kJ/s = 6.92 \ kg/s (-172.5 + \dfrac{V_2^2- 80 m/s^2}{2}) \times (\dfrac{1 \ kJ/kg}{1000 \ m^2/s^2})\)

\(- 120 kJ/s = (-1193.7 \ kg/s + 6.92\ kg/s ( \dfrac{V_2^2- 80 m/s^2}{2}) \times (\dfrac{1 \ kJ/kg}{1000 \ m^2/s^2})\)

\(V_2^2 = 316631.29 \ m/s\)

\(V_2 = \sqrt{316631.29 \ m/s\)

\(\mathbf{V_2 = 562.7 \ m/s}\)

c) the exit area of the nozzle.

The exit of the nozzle can be determined by using the expression:

\(m = \dfrac{V_2A_2}{v_2}\)

making \(A_2\) the subject of the formula ; we have:

\(A_2 = \dfrac{ m \times v_2}{V_2}\)

\(A_2 = \dfrac{ 6.92 \times 0.12551}{562.7}\)

\(A_2\) = 0.0015435 m²

a. will a detect the collision is dprop > l/r? why or why not?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

A. No, "A" will not detect the collision** based on the condition **dprop > l/r.

The condition dprop > l/r refers to the time taken for a signal to propagate across the link (dprop) being greater than the time it takes to transmit a packet (l) divided by the rate of transmission (r). This condition is used to determine if two packets will collide on a shared transmission medium.

However, "A" alone cannot detect collisions based on this condition. The reason is that "A" does not have access to the necessary information such as the propagation delay, packet length, or transmission rate.

Collision detection typically requires additional mechanisms such as Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) in Ethernet networks. CSMA/CD allows devices to listen to the transmission medium and detect if there is already ongoing transmission before sending their own packets. If a collision is detected, devices implement collision resolution procedures to handle the collision.

Therefore, "A" alone cannot detect collisions based on the condition dprop > l/r.

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Cell phones require powerful batteries in orde to work effectively. Which activity is best described as an engineering endeavor related to cell phone batteries

Answers

Where are the options?

Which of the following are desirable characteristics of refractory ceramics?
a. Ability to remain unreactive and inert in severe environments.
b. Ability to withstand high temperatures.
c. Ability to withstand low temperatures.
d. High strengths.
e. Thermally insulative.

Answers

the following are desirable characteristics of refractory ceramics

a. Ability to remain unreactive and inert in severe environments.

b. Ability to withstand high temperatures.

d. High strengths.

e. Thermally insulative.

The ability to withstand high temperatures is essential for refractory ceramics, as they are often used in high-temperature applications such as furnaces and kilns. The ability to remain unreactive and inert in severe environments is also important to ensure that the material does not react with the surrounding environment or other materials in the system, which could lead to degradation or failure of the component. High strength is desirable to prevent fracture or deformation under mechanical loads. Lastly, being thermally insulative is useful for applications where heat needs to be contained or controlled within a given space.

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Sidney wants to make an electric circuit. She gathers the items shown below.

Light bulb, wire, metal screw

What additional item does Sidney need to make a complete circuit?

A: a battery

B: a switch

C: an insulator

D: a conducter

Answers

A battery

you need a power source to complete the circuit.

Answer:

A: a battery.

Explanation:

Sidney needs a battery to make a complete circuit. The battery will provide the electrical energy needed to power the light bulb. Without a battery, the circuit will be incomplete, and the light bulb will not light up. Therefore, the correct answer is A

pls answer and I will give thumbs up:)

pls answer and I will give thumbs up:)

Answers

Answer:

A) How it conducts heat.

Answer:

The answer is A

A liquid with a specific gravity of 2.6 and a viscosity of 2.0 cP flows through a smooth pipe of unknown diameter, resulting in a pressure drop of 0.183 lb/in? for 1.73 mi. What is a pipe diameter in inches if the mass rate of flow is 7000 lb/h?

Answers

.......,.,.,.,.,.,,.,.,,.,.,.,.,.,.,.,,.,.,,.,,,.,,.,,.,.,.,.,,............,,,,,,’mmdjidvdhxxkf jkkk he in d

From the information, let us list the parameters given to solve for the diameter of the pipe.

Given that:

the specific gravity of the liquid (SG) = 2.6the density of the liquid = (S.G × density of water) = 2.6 × 1000 kg/m³

= 2600 kg/m³

Using the standard conversion rates:

The viscosity = 2.0 cP = 0.002 kg/m.sThe pressure drop ΔP = 0.183 lbf/in²

Since 1 lbf/in² = 6894.76 N/m²

The pressure drop ΔP = 0.183 lbf/in² = 1261.74 N/m²The length of the pipe = 1.73 mi = 2784.165 mMass flowrate = 7000 lb/h =  0.882 kg/s

From the given information, let's start by determining the volumetric flow rate of the liquid in the pipe:

\(\mathbf{The \ volumetric \ flow \ rate \ ( Q) = \dfrac{mass \ flow \ rate}{density \ of \ the \ liquid}}\)

\(\mathbf{Q = \dfrac{0.882 \ kg/s}{2600 \ kg/m^3}}\)

Q = 0.00034 m³/s

In a cylindrical flow pipe, using the formula for the pressure drop to estimated the pipe diameter, we have:

\(\mathsf{\dfrac{\Delta P}{\rho g}= \dfrac{8fLQ^2}{\pi^2gd^5}} --- (1)\)

where (f) can be computed as;

\(f = \dfrac{64}{\dfrac{\rho vd}{\mu}}\)

\(f = \dfrac{64}{\dfrac{\rho Qd}{A\mu}}\)

replacing the values from the above-listed parameters, we have:

\(f = \dfrac{64}{\dfrac{2600 \times 0.00034 \times d}{\dfrac{\pi}{4}(d)^2 \times 0.002}}\)

\(f = \dfrac{64}{2600 \times 0.00034 \times d} \times \dfrac{\dfrac{\pi}{4}(d)^2 \times 0.002}{1}\)

f = 0.1137d

From equation (1), Recall that:

\(\mathsf{\dfrac{\Delta P}{\rho g}= \dfrac{8fLQ^2}{\pi^2gd^5}}\)

\(\mathsf{\dfrac{\Delta P}{\rho }= \dfrac{8fLQ^2}{\pi^2d^5}}\)

Replacing the values, we have;

\(\mathsf{\dfrac{1261.74}{2600}= \dfrac{8\times 0.1173(d) \times (2784) \times (0.00034)^2}{\pi^2(d)^5}}\)

\(\mathsf{0.48528= \dfrac{2.966\times 10^{-5}}{(d)^4}}\)

\(\mathsf{d^4= \dfrac{2.966\times 10^{-5}}{0.48528}}\)

\(\mathsf{d^4= 6.11193538 \times 10^{-5}}\)

\(\mathbf{d = \sqrt[4]{ 6.11193538 \times 10^{-5}}}\)

d = 0.0884 m

d = 88.4 mm

since 1 mm = 0.0393701 inch

88.4 mm will be = 3.48 inches

Therefore, we can conclude that the diameter of the pipe = 3.48 inches

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1. Where does Mr. Teller work? What do they do there?

2. What are the three parts to the moonshot blueprint?

3. What are two projects that X decided to "kill"? Why did they abandon these projects?

4. One of X’s mantras is "Sometimes shifting your perspective is more powerful than being smart. " Do you agree with this mantra? Why or why not? When could this mantra apply in your life?

5. Why do you think X works hard to prioritize the work that seems the most difficult and the most likely to kill their projects? Do you think this is a good practice? Why or why not?

6. Should people who are involved in projects that fail be given a bonus or a reward? Why or why not?

Answers

Teller is in charge of company X, a section of research that works on cutting-edge initiatives like the self-driving car.

Teller is in charge of company X, a section of research that works on cutting-edge initiatives like the self-driving car. Mr. Teller refers to X as the "Moonshot Factory," serving as a dual reminder that their endeavors ought to be both ambitious and ultimately profitable for company . Astro Teller is similarly disorganized. The Ph.D. computer scientist and businessman Mr. Teller also writes novels and managed hedge funds in his spare time. Presently, Mr. Teller is in charge of company X, the research department that is involved in cutting-edge initiatives like the self-driving car.

Mr. Teller refers to X as the "Moonshot Factory," serving as a dual reminder that their endeavors ought to be both ambitious and ultimately profitable for company. He spoke with The Times about the status of their various projects and when they would generate revenue for company .

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consider laminar flow of a fluid over a flat plate. now the free-stream velocity of the fluid is tripled. deter- mine the change in the drag force on the plate. assume the flow to remain laminar. answer: a 5.20-fold increase

Answers

A 5.20-fold increase in drag force occurs when the free-stream velocity of a fluid over a flat plate is tripled.

How does the drag force change when the free-stream velocity is tripled for laminar flow over a flat plate?

Laminar flow refers to the smooth, orderly movement of a fluid along a surface, such as a flat plate. When the free-stream velocity of the fluid is tripled, there is a significant impact on the drag force experienced by the plate. Drag force is the resistance encountered by an object moving through a fluid.

In the case of laminar flow over a flat plate, the drag force is directly proportional to the free-stream velocity. This means that as the velocity of the fluid increases, the drag force also increases. However, the relationship is not linear; it follows a power law.

When the free-stream velocity is tripled, the change in the drag force on the plate can be determined by considering the relationship between velocity and drag force. The increase in velocity by a factor of three results in an increase in the drag force by a factor of 3^1.2, which is approximately 5.20.

Therefore, the drag force on the flat plate would experience a 5.20-fold increase when the free-stream velocity of the fluid is tripled, while the flow remains laminar.

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Given the following assembly code instructions, what is the value stored in $t1 after execution completes? addi $t0,$0,5 addi $t1,$0, 2 sit $t2, $t1,$t0 beq $t2, $0, skip add $t1,$t0,$t1 skip: add $t1, $t0,$t1

Answers

Let's analyze the given assembly code instructions step by step:

1. addi $t0, $0, 5

  This instruction adds the immediate value 5 to the register $0 and stores the result in register $t0. Since $0 is always zero, this instruction essentially initializes $t0 with the value 5.

2. addi $t1, $0, 2

  This instruction adds the immediate value 2 to the register $0 and stores the result in register $t1. As a result, $t1 is set to 2.

3. sit $t2, $t1, $t0

  This instruction is not a valid MIPS instruction. It seems to be a typo or an error in the given code.

4. beq $t2, $0, skip

  This instruction checks if the value in $t2 is equal to zero. If they are equal, it branches to the "skip" label. However, since $t2 is not properly initialized in the previous instructions, it is unclear what value it holds at this point.

5. add $t1, $t0, $t1

  This instruction adds the values in $t0 and $t1 and stores the result in $t1. Therefore, the value in $t1 is updated to be the sum of the initial values of $t0 and $t1.

Given the provided code and the missing information about $t2, it is not possible to determine the final value stored in $t1 after the execution completes.

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4. A cylindrical specimen of a brass alloy 7.5 mm in diameter and 90.0 mm long is pulled in tension with a force of 6000 N; the force is subsequently released. a. Compute the final length of the specimen. b. Compute the final specimen length with the load is increased to 16,500 N and then released.

Answers

The elastic properties of the brass specimen enables it to return to its

original length when stressed below the yield strength.

The correct responses are;

4. a. The final length is 90.0 m.

b. The final length is 97.2 mm.

Reasons:  

a. Diameter of the brass alloy = 7.5 mm

Length of the specimen = 90.0 mm

Force applied = 6000 N

The equation for the applied stress, σ, is presented as follows;

\(\sigma = \dfrac{Force \ applied}{Area \ of \ specimen} = \dfrac{6000 \, N}{\pi \cdot \left(\dfrac{7.5 \times 10^{-3}}{2} \, m} \right)^2 } \approx 135.81 \ \mathrm{MPA}\)

Depending on the cold working condition, 135.81 MPa is below the yield

strength, and the brass will return to its original condition when the force is

removed. The final length is remains as 90.0 m.

b. When the applied force is F = 16,500 N, we have;

\(\sigma = \dfrac{16,500\, N}{\pi \cdot \left(\dfrac{7.5 \times 10^{-3}}{2} \, m} \right)^2 } \approx 373.48\ \mathrm{MPA}\)

The stress found for the force of 16,500 N is above the yield stress of

brass, and it is therefore, in the plastic region.

From the stress strain curve, the strain can be estimated by drawing a line

from the point of the 373.48 MP on the stress strain curve, parallel to the

elastic region to intersect the strain axis, which gives a value of strain

approximately, ε = 0.08.

The length of the specimen is given by the formula; \(l_i = l_0 \cdot (1 + \epsilon)\)

Therefore;

\(l_i\) = 90 × (1 + 0.08) = 97.2

The final length of the specimen, \(l_i\) = 97.2 mm

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4. A cylindrical specimen of a brass alloy 7.5 mm in diameter and 90.0 mm long is pulled in tension with

1. Discuss the benefits of observing good safety measures in relation to an increase in
productivity within a pharmaceutical laboratory

Answers

The benefits of observing good safety measures in relation to an increase in productivity within a pharmaceutical laboratory is that:

It prevent the loss of chemicals due to spillage and others,It prevent the lab staff from getting hurt or injured as a result of mishap, etc.

What are the benefits of practicing safety in the laboratory?

A laboratory is known to be one that is known to have a lot of potential risks that is said to often arise due to  a person's exposure to chemicals that are corrosive and toxic, flammable solvents, high pressure gases and others.

So,  A little care and working in line to all the prescribed safety guidelines will help a person to be able to avoid laboratory mishaps.

Therefore, the act of adhering to all these policies helps a lot of employees to hinder the  spills of chemicals and other kinds of  accidents, as well as reduce the damage to the environment that is outside of the lab.

Hence, The benefits of observing good safety measures in relation to an increase in productivity within a pharmaceutical laboratory is that:

It prevent the loss of chemicals due to spillage and others,It prevent the lab staff from getting hurt or injured as a result of mishap, etc.

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FILL THE BLANK.hurricane winds rotate in a clockwise direction in ____.

Answers

Hurricane winds rotate in a clockwise direction in the Southern Hemisphere, while in the Northern Hemisphere, they rotate counterclockwise due to the Coriolis effect caused by the Earth's rotation.

hurricane winds rotate in a clockwise direction in the Southern Hemisphere.

In the Northern Hemisphere, hurricane winds rotate counterclockwise. This is due to the Coriolis effect, which is caused by the rotation of the Earth. The Coriolis effect causes moving air or water to be deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.

In the Southern Hemisphere, the deflection results in the winds of a hurricane rotating clockwise around the eye of the storm. This is opposite to the rotation observed in the Northern Hemisphere. Understanding the direction of hurricane winds is crucial for tracking and predicting their movements.

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