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Hospice care and palliative care both focus on providing comfort and support to patients with terminal illnesses.
Palliative care can be provided at any stage of a serious illness and can be combined with curative treatments. It aims to alleviate symptoms, manage pain, and improve the quality of life for patients with chronic or life-limiting conditions. Palliative care can be offered in various settings, including hospitals, clinics, or at home.
On the other hand, hospice care is specifically designed for patients in the last stages of a terminal illness, typically with a life expectancy of six months or less. Hospice care focuses on providing comfort, managing symptoms, and addressing the emotional, social, and spiritual needs of both the patient and their family. Hospice care is usually provided at the patient's home or in a hospice facility. In hospice, the focus shifts from curative treatments to comfort and support for the patient and their loved ones.
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Related Questions
Biggest risk factor for facial dehiscence post-surgery?
Answers
The biggest risk factor for facial dehiscence post-surgery is the surgical technique used, specifically the amount of tension placed on the incision site during closure.
Facial dehiscence, also known as wound dehiscence, is a complication that occurs when the edges of a surgical incision separate or split open, leaving underlying tissues exposed. The risk factors for facial dehiscence include poor surgical technique, compromised blood supply to the wound site, infection, and underlying medical conditions such as diabetes and autoimmune diseases.
However, studies have shown that the most significant risk factor for facial dehiscence is the amount of tension placed on the incision site during closure. Excessive tension can lead to increased pressure on the wound, impairing blood flow and causing the incision to separate.
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You are assessing breathing. Which of these signs is just as important as the respiratory rate?
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Answer:
When observing the respiratory rate, it is important to note the color of the patient's lips. They may be cyanosed (blue) or discolored if the patient has respiratory problems. Cyanosis can also be observed in the nail bed, the tip of the nose, and ear lobes
The _______ is made up of all of the nerves that connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body.
Answers
Answer:
peripheral nervous system
Explanation:
Peripheral nervous system consists of all of the body's nerves connected to the central nervous system.
What is Peripheral nervous system?
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is outside the brain and spinal cord. It sends information from our body to our brain and executes brain directives to our body.
There are two main parts to the peripheral nervous system: The autonomic nervous system (ANS) controls the body's automatic processes and glands. Somatic nervous system (SNS): controls muscle movement and sends information from the ears, eyes, and skin to the central nervous system.
Meanwhile the brain and the spinal cord are the components that make up the central nervous system (CNS).
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If the sinus node stops discharging, what is the expected heart rate (in beats/minute) if the A-V node takes over as the cardiac pacemaker?
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If the sinus node stops discharging, the expected heart rate if the A-V node takes over as the cardiac pacemaker would be between 40 and 60 beats per minute.
The sinus node is the primary pacemaker of the heart and typically generates electrical impulses at a rate of 60 to 100 beats per minute. However, if the sinus node stops discharging, the A-V node can take over as the cardiac pacemaker.
The A-V node is located in the lower portion of the right atrium and normally relays electrical impulses from the sinus node to the ventricles. When the A-V node takes over as the cardiac pacemaker, it generates electrical impulses at a slower rate than the sinus node, typically between 40 and 60 beats per minute.
In summary, if the sinus node stops discharging, the expected heart rate if the A-V node takes over as the cardiac pacemaker would be between 40 and 60 beats per minute.
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The USDA is responsible for regulating meat and agricultural products. Examples include cuts of beef and produce like spinach. The FDA is responsible for regulating other food and health-related items. Examples include processed foods and diet pills.
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Answer:.
Explanation:
.
a patient is anxious about an operation schheduled for the next day which intervention would the nurse use to decrease the patient
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The nurse can be affectionate towards the patient, answer their queries, recovery process, and the surgical methods so as to calm down the patient, which means option 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
It is very common for the patient to feel anxious before undergoing any surgical procedure and it is mainly because they fear the rate of success of the operation. It is important that the nurse in such cases remain positive and assures the patient about all the questions that they might have about the surgery procedures. It is because more the calm mind of the patient will be, more the body will respond better to the surgery and not cause any complication to the patient. The patient can be made surgery prepared by music, fulfilling hobbies, dance and some light moments which cherished their mind.
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Refer to complete question below:
A patient is anxious about an operation scheduled for the next day. The nurse identifies that the patient is anxious. Which interventions does the nurse use to decrease the patient's anxiety related to surgery? Select all that apply.
1 Provide satisfactory answers to the patient's questions.
2 Instruct the patient to perform range-of-motion exercises.
3 Provide detailed instructions about the recovery process.
4 Provide detailed instructions about the surgical procedure.
5 Provide detailed instructions about discharge planning
Your patient is receiving palliative care for end stage liver disease. She has not been eating or drinking. She is experiencing bleeding from her mucous membranes and her IV sites. How would you explain these symptoms to her distraught family?
Answers
Answer:
I have taken care of two people my best friend was diagnosed with End stage liver disease and had no insurance so he received very little medical care he passed away a few months later at the age of 25. And my father who is 52 who receives great medical care was diagnosed 4years ago with end stage liver disease and is still alive waiting for a transplant.
Explanation:
When explaining these symptoms to the patient's distraught family, it's important to communicate with empathy, honesty, and in a clear, compassionate manner.
The symptoms of distraught family"I want to start by expressing my sincere worry for your loved one's health and the difficulties your family is going through. I am aware of how upsetting this circumstance must be for each of you.
The severe stage of your family member's liver disease is, regrettably, a contributing factor in her symptoms, which include not eating or drinking, bleeding from mucosal membranes, and bleeding from IV sites. The liver's capacity to perform its essential functions is substantially impaired in end-stage liver disease.
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PLEASE MAKE CONNECTIONS BETWEEN THE WORDS HELPPPPP!!!!!!!!
In 2-4 sentences demonstrate your understanding of the following terms and how they relate to one another. Be sure not to simply define the terms, but to make connections between them.
license
code of ethics
suspension
revocation
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Answer :
I have got a suspension from the company they even cut my license because I did not follow the code of ethics they said that for the ones that misbehave will fall into revocation of free time .
Assume that you are a consultant to the Minister of Health of a modernizing poor country with a significant burden of illness and death from road traffic injuries. The Minister asks you to set up a surveillance system for injury morbidity and mortality. How would you do it
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The surveillance system for injury morbidity and mortality will be done by monitoring the total number of deaths and the illness caused by road accidents.
What is Mortality?This is also known as death rate and is the measure of the number of deaths in a particular population.
The surveillance system will however be done by monitoring the total number of deaths and the illness caused by road accidents and putting appropriate measures on tackling the menace.
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Which Of The Following Syringes Should Be Used To Measure 0.72 ML?
A:5 ml syringe
B:tuberculin syringe
C:3 ml syringe
D:insulin syringe
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A tuberculin syringe should be used to measure 0.72 ML. The correct option is B.
What is tuberculin syringe?Tuberculin syringes are devices that include a needle to measure and deliver a specific amount of liquid. They are used to oversee medicines, vaccines, or other substances subcutaneously or intradermally.
A tuberculin syringe should be used to measure 0.72 ML.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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Mrs. Mendoza, who has had type 2 diabetes for 17 years, had a below-the-knee amputation of her gangrenous left foot. Her electronic health record indicates that she has had peripheral neuropath, diabetic retinopathy with loss of visual acuity, gastroparesis, and two previous hospitalizations for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. The two basic components of type 2 diabetes are _________. (select all that apply)
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Answer:
The correct answer is - Type 2 diabetes mellitus has major components: insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion.
Explanation:
In type 2 diabetes there are two major components that play an important role to cause this that are Insulin resistance in which insulin could not bind with the specific receptors that result in less effective at stimulating glucose uptake.
The other major component is impaired insulin secretion in which an increased amount of insulin is required that there is not enough insulin to prevent the breakdown of fats and production of ketones.
At what age do children prefer to spend time alone instead of with family?
eleven years old
nine years old
twelve years old
thirteen years old
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this definition of death holds that individuals are dead when they have irreversibly lost all functions of the entire brain.
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By demonstrating the permanent end of the brain's clinical functioning, brain death serves as a determination of human death. Due to the loss of the entire organism, whole-brain death constitutes a death in humans.
What transpires after someone passes away?The heart eventually quits, and they eventually stop breathing. Their brain completely shuts down after a few minutes, and their skin begins to cool. They have already passed away at this time.
Where do we go after someone dies?A person's soul departs from this world when they pass away because there is an everlasting life that comes after death. The soul will be transferred to a new body on the Day of the Resurrection, and people will appear before God to receive judgment.
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Associations of multiple plasma metals with incident type 2 diabetes in Chinese adults: The Dongfeng-Tongji Cohort
Answers
Results from both non experimental and experimental studies indicate that selenium may increase the risk of type 2 diabetes across a wide range of exposure levels.
The long-term associations between multiple metals and incident diabetes are uncertain. We aimed to examine the relationship between plasma concentrations of 23 metals and the incidence of type 2 diabetes among Chinese senior adults. We quantified fasting plasma concentrations of 23 metals by inductively coupled plasma mass spectrometry among 1039 incident diabetes cases and 1039 controls nested in a prospective study, the Dongfeng-Tongji cohort. Both cases and controls were free of diabetes at baseline (2008-2010), incident diabetes were identified using the following criteria: fasting glucose ≥ 7.0 m moL/l; or hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) ≥ 6.5%; or self-reported physician diagnosis of diabetes or use of anti-diabetic medication during the follow-up visits in 2013.
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a 40-year-old client tells the nurse that a parent died of gastric cancer and that the client wants to do everything one can do to avoid the disease. which recommendation should the nurse provide?
Answers
The best protective mechanism for preventing Gastric Cancer might be - Prevention from helicobacter pylori infection, Stop smoking and Alcohol, Proper dietary intake.
What is Gastric Cancer ?
Gastric cancer, commonly referred to as stomach cancer, is a cancer that starts in the stomach lining. Gastric carcinomas, which can be further broken down into a number of subtypes, including gastric adenocarcinomas, account for the majority of instances of stomach cancer. The stomach can potentially develop lymphomas and mesenchymal tumours.
Heartburn, upper stomach pain, nausea, and appetite loss are some of the early warning signs.
The risk of stomach cancer may be reduced by the following protective factors:
a) Diet - A higher risk of stomach cancer is associated with eating insufficient amounts of fresh fruits and vegetables. According to several research, consuming fruits and vegetables high in vitamin C and beta carotene may reduce the risk of developing stomach cancer.
b) Treat Helicobacter Pylori Infection - An elevated risk of stomach cancer is associated with chronic infection with the Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria. When the stomach is infected with H. pylori bacteria, the stomach may become inflamed and the cells that line the stomach may change.
c) Stop Smoking - Stomach cancer risk is reportedly raised by smoking. Stomach cancer risk is reduced by quitting or never smoking.
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Recommendation from the nurse should be to Avoid smoked and preserved foods.
What is Gastric Cancer?
The inside lining of your stomach is typically where cancerous cells in stomach cancer, also known as gastric cancer, start to grow. As the malignancy progresses, they then penetrate your stomach walls farther. Although widespread around the world, it is uncommon in the United States. In the early stages of stomach cancer, typical signs like unexplained weight loss and stomach pain frequently don't manifest.
What causes Stomach Cancer?
A genetic mutation (change) occurs in the DNA of your stomach cells, which leads to the development of stomach cancer. Cells receive their growth and death cues from DNA. The mutation causes the cells to proliferate quickly and eventually develop a tumor rather than perish. The cancer cells overrun healthy cells and may spread to other places of your body (metastasize) (metastasize).
It is unknown to researchers what causes the mutation. However, some elements seem to make stomach cancer more likely to occur.
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Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?
Answers
Explanation:
Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.a pregnant client is concerned she may develop preeclampsia, so she has stopped adding any salt to her food and is now questioning the nurse about avoiding prepared foods. the nurse should point out some salt is very beneficial and can help prevent which negative outcome for her baby?
Answers
While excessive salt intake can be harmful and may contribute to the development of preeclampsia, it is also important to note that some salt is necessary for the body and can help prevent negative outcomes for the baby.
The nurse can point out that salt contains sodium, which is an electrolyte that helps regulate fluid balance in the body. Adequate sodium intake is important during pregnancy to help maintain proper blood volume and prevent dehydration, which can lead to complications such as low birth weight and preterm birth. In addition, adequate salt intake can help prevent hyponatremia, a condition in which the blood sodium level is too low and can cause symptoms such as nausea, headache, and confusion. Therefore, the nurse may advise the client to consume a moderate amount of salt, such as adding a small amount of salt to her food, and to avoid excessive sodium intake from processed or prepared foods.
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Which statements made by a nursing student indicate that the student has an appropriate knowledge base regarding the pregnancy hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)? Select all that apply.1."Maximum level of human chorionic gonadotropin is reached at term."2."Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test."3."Human chorionic gonadotropin may be present as early as 8 to 10 days following conception." 4."Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced by the trophoblastic cells that surround the developing embryo."5."Human chorionic gonadotropin preserves the function of the ovarian corpus luteum so that estrogen and progesterone are produced before placental functioning."
Answers
The hormone that causes a positive pregnancy test, human chorionic gonadotropin, can be detectable as young as 8 to 10 weeks after conception, according to a nursing student.
How does pregnancy develop? What is it?The period during which a newborn develops inside of the woman's pregnancy or uterus is known as a pregnancy. When counting beginning with the last menstrual cycle through delivery, a pregnancy typically lasts approximately four to six weeks, or just about 9 months.
What occurs initially when you become pregnant?The onset of mild spotting could be among the early signs of pregnancy. Recurrent bleeding, also referred as embedding, takes place when a fertilized egg attaches to the womb's wall about ten to fourteen before fertilization.
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vitmain b12 is essential for the development and maintenance of
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Vitamin B12 is essential for the development and maintenance of several bodily functions, particularly those related to the nervous system and red blood cell production.
It plays a crucial role in the synthesis of DNA, the genetic material in cells, and is necessary for the normal functioning of nerve cells. Vitamin B12 is also involved in the production of red blood cells, which carry oxygen throughout the body.
Without adequate levels of vitamin B12, individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, tingling or numbness in the extremities, difficulty in maintaining balance, and impaired cognitive function.
Therefore, vitamin B12 is vital for overall neurological health and blood cell production.
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The axon:
A.) Is the ending point of the nerve impulse.
B.) Sends neurotransmitters.
C.) Is the main body of the nerve cell.
D.) Receives neurotransmitters.
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Acetaminophen is very deadly guys it can be found in allergy medicine btw so just make sure to read the drug facts and how many mg of it are in each tablet. Enjoy the points :)
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Answer: ok
Explanation:
where is soft spot on baby head
Answers
The larger special fondness (anterior fontanelle) is at the front of the head, while the smaller soft spot (prior fontanelle) is to towards the back. All newborns are born with these two glaring weaknesses (fontanelles) on their heads.
What exactly is a newborn child in terms of science?Both a newborn and a neonate are used. The first four weeks of life are referred to as the neonatal era. The pace of change at the moment is really quick.
Which stage of infancy is the most difficult?Most individuals find a first six- to eight-week period with a new infant to be the most difficult, and while many of the difficulties in these initial days of motherhood may not be openly discussed (if at all), there are an lot of typical difficulties you may encounter at this time.
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Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
Answers
The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest
The correct answer choice is option a.
Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedureFrom the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.
So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.
Complete question:
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
a. Bed rest
b. Chewing exercises
c. Taking an antibiotic
d. Clear liquid diet.
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Why in the blood you cant see free iron and copper?
Answers
Answer:
It thus seems likely that both iron and copper deficiency can occur in selected populations .
Catapres(R) decreases stimulation of the GI tract and acts as a mild sedative. It is known as the only alpha-receptor drug used to treat
a. Crohn's disease.
b. GERD
c. ulcerative colitis
d. vertigo
Answers
Answer:
C. Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
A solution contains 100 mg/mL of a drug, and the recommended dose is 50 mg/lb. once a day. How much solution would be needed for one dose to be administered to a 1 kg kitten
Answers
Answer:
half a solution
Explanation:
A therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on Sigmund Freud's theory, explains that a patients problematic behavior is based upon
A. A classically conditioned response
B. Observational learning without consequences
C. Being stuck in the developmental task of trust vs. mistrust
D. Unconscious motives, fears, and anxieties
Answers
Answer: The answer would be unconscious motives, fears, and anxieties because this is based on Freud's Theories
Explanation: Mom studied this in nurses training and then became an R.N.
Hope this helps! Dee Dee Riley
A therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on the theory of Sigmund Freud, explains that a patient's problematic behavior is based on being stuck in the task of developing trust versus mistrust.
How does Freud explain anger?Freud associates aggressive impulses with self-preservation drives, which would have the function of maintaining and affirming individual existence. In the same way, he postulates a genesis of its own for hate, when he states that “the apparent transformation of love into hate is just an illusion”
With this information, we can conclude that a therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on the theory of Sigmund Freud, explains that a patient's problematic behavior is based on being stuck in the task of developing trust versus mistrust.
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Differentiate between electronic health record (EHR), electronic medical record (EMR), and personal health record (PHR) Differentiate between clinical information systems (CIS) and administrative information systems (AIS) What systems are currently being utilized at your organization
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Answer:
The electronic medical records and the electronic health records are maintained by a health provider or a physician whereas the personal health recorder are kept and maintained by the patient themselves.
Explanation:
Electronic health record or EHR is the paper chart of a patient in a digital format. It focuses on total health of the patient that is beyond the clinical data collected. They are designed to store all the medical history of a patient.
Electronic medical record or EMR are used mainly by the doctors to keep a track and record the medical metrics and the information of the patients. This allows the physician to track the data of a patient over time.
A personal health record is been maintained by an individual. It is the collection or record of an individual's health. It helps to improve the patient's engagement.
A clinical information systems is a type of information system that is designed mainly for the use in the critical care situation which includes ICU. It draws the information from all those systems in a patient record kept electronically that can available for the doctor to see at the bedside of the patient.
The administrative information systems helps the process of a client care by the management of a nonclinical financial information, demographic information, etc.
describe what happens to a red blood cell as it moves from the right atria of the heart through the body and back to the right atria.
Answers
Answer:
After leaving the heart, the red blood cell travels through the pulmonary artery to the lungs. It picks up oxygen making the deoxygenated red blood cell now an oxygenated blood cell. The blood cell then makes it way back to the heart via the pulmonary vein into the left atrium.
Explanation:
Once sharp containers are collected, what typically happens to them
Answers
Answer:
The goal in sharps waste management is to safely handle all materials until they can be properly disposed of. The final step in the disposal of sharps waste is to dispose of them in an autoclave. A less common approach is to incinerate them; typically only chemotherapy sharps waste is incinerated.
Explanation:
Answer:
They are sterilized in an autoclave
Explanation:
EDGE