The assessment finding suggests an increased risk for hepatotoxicity during antimalarial therapy that despite the fact that the nurse should promote fluid consumption, decreased fluid intake does not raise the risk.
Acetaminophen 1000 mg PO is administered to the patient every four hours. The risk of liver damage from antiprotozoals can be increased by concurrent use of other medications that may be hepatotoxic. Despite the fact that the nurse should promote fluid consumption, decreased fluid intake does not raise the risk. Vitamin C does not harm the liver. Non-compliance reduces the medication's effectiveness but doesn't harm the liver.
Antimalarial medications are used to treat and ward off malarial illnesses. The majority of antimalarial medications focus on the erythrocytic stage of the disease, which is the stage of infection that results in symptoms of illness.
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What is the first step you should take if a person is showing symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Answer:
If a person is showing symptoms of anaphylaxis, the first step that should be taken is to administer emergency epinephrine (adrenaline) if it is available. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. The symptoms include difficulty breathing, hives, swelling of the face, and rapid pulse. If left untreated, anaphylaxis can lead to shock, cardiac arrest, and death. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. This can be done by injecting an epinephrine auto-injector into the muscle of the thigh. If the person does not have an epinephrine auto-injector, emergency medical services should be called immediately.
What is torso truma..
Torso trauma may be defined as a type of injury that involves specific regions of the body such as the chest and the abdomen.
What is the actual cause of Torso's trauma?The actual cause of torse trauma includes recreational accidents, motor vehicle collisions, assaults, falling from a certain height, etc.
Apart from the chest and the abdomen, torso trauma also includes the injury of major organs like the small bowel, liver, kidneys, diaphragm, pancreas, spleen, colorectum, etc.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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client who is in her second trimester and has a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching
The statement by the client that indicates a need for further teaching is one that demonstrates a lack of understanding or misinformation about gestational diabetes and its management during the second trimester.
Gestational diabetes is a type of diabetes that occurs during pregnancy, usually developing in the second trimester. It can cause complications for both the mother and baby if not managed properly. Some statements that may indicate a need for further teaching include:
1. "I don't need to check my blood sugar levels since it's just gestational diabetes."
2. "I can continue eating the same diet as before; I don't need to make any changes."
3. "Gestational diabetes will not affect my baby's health."
4. "I can stop monitoring and managing my diabetes after the pregnancy."
These statements suggest that the client may not fully understand the implications of gestational diabetes and the importance of proper management during pregnancy.
If a client in her second trimester with a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes makes a statement that shows a lack of understanding or misinformation about the condition and its management, this indicates a need for further teaching. It is crucial for the client to have accurate information to ensure the health and well-being of both herself and her baby.
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Which of the following is capable of resetting the thermostat of the body to cause a fever? A) antigen. B) perforin. C) complement. D) pyrogen
The answer to the question is pyrogen. Pyrogens are substances that are capable of resetting the thermostat of the body, which leads to a fever. So, the corrcet answer is option d.
When the body detects an infection or inflammation, it releases pyrogens. Pyrogens then bind to receptors in the hypothalamus, which is the part of the brain that controls body temperature. This binding causes the hypothalamus to increase the set point of the body temperature, which leads to a fever.
Pyrogens can be endogenous, which means they are produced by the body, or exogenous, which means they come from outside the body. Endogenous pyrogens include cytokines, which are released by immune cells in response to an infection. Exogenous pyrogens include bacterial toxins, which can cause a fever by stimulating the release of cytokines.
In conclusion, the substance capable of resetting the thermostat of the body to cause a fever is pyrogen. Pyrogens are released by the body in response to an infection or inflammation, and they bind to receptors in the hypothalamus to increase the set point of the body temperature.
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a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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Module 05 Discussion - Critical Thinking and Clinical Judgment Scenario
You have been assigned 4 patients on an Intermediate Medical Care Unit. Two of the patients are post myocardial infarctions at various stages of their infarctions with multiple types of arrhythmias, the third patient is having drastic blood sugar fluctuations 218 down to 50 within minutes and its rebounds back up with changes in mentation and the fourth is reported to be having frequent TIA's. One of the MI patients is having some dizziness and your TIA patient is presenting signs of impending stroke.
How would you prioritize your assessments and activities? How would you describe your critical thinking process and how do you organize and prioritize implementation of care?
Here are some advice for nurses to help them master the art of prioritizing:
Sort tasks according to significance.Estimate the amount of time needed for each task.Give the most crucial tasks your most productive hours.Ask how urgent a task is if it is given to you.Reevaluate your priorities on a regular basis.The nurses continue to distinguish between statements based on facts, conclusions, judgments, and opinions when using critical thinking. The evaluation of the information's credibility is a crucial phase of critical thinking, during which the nurse must verify the veracity of the information by consulting additional sources of information and informants. Four patients in an Intermediate Medical Care Unit have been assigned to you.
Two of the patients have had myocardial infarctions and are in varying stages of recovery. Two of the patients have multiple types of arrhythmias. The third patient has had dramatic blood sugar swings, going from 218 to 50 in minutes before rebounding with changes in mentation. The fourth patient is said to have frequent TIAs.
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cpt code for cystourethroscopy with insertion of permanent urethral stent
The CPT code for cystourethroscopy with insertion of a permanent urethral stent is 52332.
CPT codes are used to describe medical procedures and services performed by healthcare providers. Cystourethroscopy is a procedure that involves inserting a thin tube with a camera into the urethra and bladder to examine the urinary tract. Insertion of a permanent urethral stent involves placing a small tube-like device in the urethra to help keep it open and improve urine flow.
The CPT code 52332 specifically describes this procedure, which includes the cystourethroscopy and insertion of the permanent stent. It is important to use the correct CPT code for billing purposes to ensure proper reimbursement from insurance providers. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare provider or coder to ensure accurate coding for medical procedures.
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When a provider's fee exceeds the allowed amount stated on the the explanation of benefits from the insurance company, a (n) is posted to the patient account record for that difference.
Answer:
The correct answer is - adjustment.
Explanation:
Adjustments are the credits that are posted to the record of the account of the patient if the amount of fee exceeds more than the allowed amount which is stated in the benefits from the insurance company.
It is the amount that will be reimbursed from the records of the patient's account to the insurance company.
Thus, the correct answer is - adjustment.
The medical assistant never has to ask for identificationbecause this can be easily assumed since the first visit?
Answer:
That is false
Explanation:
Hope this helps:)...if not then sorry for wasting your time and may God bless you:)
This is a graded discussion: 100 points possible
Week 5 Lesson 1 Discussion
Deanna is a new medical assistant in the office in which you work. She does not understand the matrix for making appointments. On her second
day at work, she is on her own to make appointments, because the person who usually makes appointments is out with a sick child. Deanna
makes two appointments in each slot as she did in her previous place of employment instead of the one that should have been made using the
matrix. How will this affect the patients who are being seen for the next few days? What will this mistake do to public relations in the office?
rt
Select Next at the bottom right of this screen to access the Lecture.
I hope other people will comment and tell u the answer because I don’t really know
The mistake made by Deanna in her new place of employment will negatively affect the patients for the next few days as well as public relations in the office.
By creating two appointments in each slot instead of the one appointment that she should have made, Deanna will cause problems for the patients in question. The patients will arrive to their appointments only to find that they are scheduled at the same time as another patient which would mean one of them will have to wait. This is sure to anger some patients.
Public relations is described as the relationship that an entity has with the public, in this case the offices relationship with the patients. Due to the patients anger generated by this mistake, public relations will be negativity impacted as patients are likely to see the office as irresponsible or unreliable.
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Why is it necessary for a health care institution to have official written policies for addressing issues of medical ethics
Answer: Whether written or unwritten, every organization has a system or code of morals based on how its leaders want to relate to customers and others and thus directing how the organization's employees should behave as well. An increasing number of organizations, within health care and otherwise, are issuing formal ethical standards of conduct for their employees. Individual occupations, notably the healthcare professions, likewise have published ethical standards proscribing the conduct of their members. In most instances, people admitted to membership in a profession agree to ascribe to these ethical standards of conduct as a condition of entry.
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Define the words suffix, prefix and root.
1-acute migraine
2-Nausea
3-Aura
Answer:
यभभटयठयवधखदरयख खयरखयखक्षगयडयड यडतडयडयडडर
Answer:
Affixes are word that are added before or after the root word and change the meaning of a root or base word. Prefixes and Suffixes are both Affixes. Prefixes are word parts that come at the beginning of the root wood. Suffixes are word parts that come at the end of the root or base words.
Explanation:
I HOPE THIA NSWER HELPS U
PLZ MARK ME AS BRANILIEST
Coordination of the balance in the body movement is controlled by the?
Cerebellum
The bodies functions that occur without conscious effort are related by the BLANK nervous system.
Autonomic
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the?
Cerebellum and Brain.
The cervical spine is composed of BLANK vertebra.
7
The BLANK contains about 75% of the brain's total volume.
Cerebrum
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, and Coccygeal.
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is:
Epinephrine
The BLANK is the best-protected part of the C.N.S. and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory system.
Brain Stem
The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (C.S.F.) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by:
Acting as shock absorbers for the brain and spinal cord.
The BLANK nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
Peripheral
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:
Spinal Canal
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the:
Dura Mater
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?
Somatic
What nerve carries information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord?
Sensory Nerve
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:
Immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.
A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in title volume. The most appropriate airway management for her includes:
Assisting ventilations at an age appropriate rate
An epidural hematoma is most accurately defined as:
Bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
An indicator of and expanding intercranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
A rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
Any unresponsive trauma patient should be assumed to have:
An accompanying spinal injury.
A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing:
Retrograde Amnesia
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless:
It interferes with your assessment of the airway.
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following.
C.S.F leakage from the ears.
Combative behavior.
Decreased sensory function.
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following:
Mastoid process bruising.
Ecchymosis around the eyes.
Noted deformity to the skull.
During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulses. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should:
Instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.
Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a G.C.S score of:
14
Laceration to the scalp:
Maybe an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (G.C.S.) is used to assess:
Eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response.
The ideal procedure for moving in injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
The Log Roll.
The most common in serious complication of a significant head injury is:
Cerebral Edema.
When assessing a conscious patient with an M.O.I. that suggests spinal injury, you should:
Determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.
When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should:
Place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.
When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should:
Ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.
When immobilizing a trauma patients spine, the E.M.T. manually stabilizing the head should not let go until:
The patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
When opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury, you should use the:
Jaw-Thrust Maneuver.
Answer:
Cerebellum
Explanation:
Give the adjective-forming suffix which can mean pertaining to, pertaining to inflammation, or can indicate a drug or agent. Give the suffix which has antineuritic and laryingitic as examples.
Answer:inflammation : -itis
Explanation:that’s all i know
An affix that is added at the end of the word for the formation of the derivative is called suffixes. The adjective-forming suffix that can be added is -itic or -itis.
What is inflammation?Inflammation is the process of the body that is the response of the immune cells in fighting the pathogens by releasing chemicals and certain factors that causes swelling.
Antineuritic is the prevention or the relieving of nerve inflammation or neuritis. They are the class of drugs and agents used for the treatment of inflammation-related symptoms.
The inflammation of the larynx due to infection or other factors is called laryngitis. It pertains to a type of inflammation caused in some parts of the body.
Therefore, -itic or -itis is the suffixes.
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The energy value of food measured in units of heat are known as?
A.
Fats
B.
Minerals
C.
Calories
D.
Portions
Hello!
We measure the amount of energy that we get from food through the unit called calories.
Answer choice C is correct.
andrew returned for his follow-up visit last week with increased pain and edema in his right knee and was scheduled for an arthroscopy. he presents to the surgical center today for a right knee diagnostic arthroscopy with synovial biopsy. anesthesia is being performed on this 72-year-old male patient by a crna with medical supervision by a physician. other than osteoarthritis, andrew has essential hypertension, which is well-controlled. postoperatively the patient was placed in a prefabricated canvas longitudinal knee immobilizer
The question is incomplete however the correct question is as follows:
What is the correct CPT code modifier to use?
Answer:
The correct answer would be - 51 and 59.
Explanation:
Modifier 51 and modifier 59 are two common code modifier for arthroscopy. the code 51 tells that the same physician is performing multiple arthroscopy or other procedure for different clients at the same session except E/M services.
On other hand modifier 59 that indicates that the procedure normally not reported together but in specific conditions that meet with the criteria of code for reporting separately. It may also suggest that same provider should not perform the procedure same day.
Arthroscopy, knee, diagnostic, with or without synovial biopsy -29870 is a separate procedure.
what is a change theory
answer - → Theory of Change is a methodology for planning, participation, and evaluation that is used in companies, philanthropy, not-for-profit, and government sectors to promote social change.
Experimenters arranged for participants to experience subliminal recordings designed
to help them lose weight. According to the research, the recordings will
a. interfere with the participants' capacity for sensory adaptation
O b. have no more impact on participants' weight than a placebo
O c. improve participants' capacity for auditory transduction
O d. have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' eating habits
An experiment is a scientific procedure aimed at testing a hypothesis. The hypothesis is a plausible explanation of some aspect of the real world that must be confirmed or rejected by using the scientific method.
According to the research, the recordings will have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' eating habits (Option d).In this case, the hypothesis is that recordings will have a positive impact on eating habits.An experiment is a scientific procedure that is used for the collection of empirical evidence.Subsequently, this empirical evidence is then used to test (either support or reject) the working hypothesis.Learn more in:
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Classify each characteristic as a prebiotic, probiotic, or postbiotic. Prebiotics Probiotics Postbiotics Byproducts include short chain fatty acids, enzymes amino acids, and some nutrients Sources include yogurt, kefir, and sauerkraut Metabolites produced by beneficial bacteria Sources include legumes, garlic, wheat bran, and bananas Healthy bacteria that reside in your GI tract Foods that nourish the gut bacteria
Prebiotics, probiotics and postbiotics:
Prebiotic: Legumes, garlic, wheat bran, and bananasProbiotic: Yogurt, kefir, and sauerkrautPostbiotic: Byproducts include short chain fatty acids, enzymes amino acids, and some nutrients; Metabolites produced by beneficial bacteria; Healthy bacteria that reside in your GI tract.The Benefits of Incorporating Prebiotics, Probiotics, and Postbiotics Into Your DietGood nutrition is essential for maintaining a healthy lifestyle, and the types of food you consume can have a huge impact on your overall health and well-being. Prebiotics, probiotics, and postbiotics are three distinct but related types of food that can help you improve your digestive health and promote the growth of good bacteria in your gut. In this essay, we will explore how prebiotics, probiotics, and postbiotics can benefit your health and how they can be incorporated into your diet.
Prebiotics are non-digestible carbohydrates that promote the growth of beneficial bacteria in the gut, allowing them to thrive and perform their functions. Foods high in prebiotics include legumes, garlic, wheat bran, and bananas. Prebiotics can help to improve digestion, reduce inflammation, and support overall gut health.
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10. When making an online complaint, what advice should you follow?
(Select only one)
Focus only on the facts and support them.
Use strong language to demonstrate your frustration.
Post your complaint anonymously.
Make your complaint lengthy to demonstrate the seriousness of your complaint
Answer:
Focus only on the facts and support them
Explanation:
"Focus only on the facts and support them" is only right option here. You may get some benefit from showing your frustration but this is rare case as companies admire facts only.
anonymously complain and lengthy complain are negative things to complain support as contact person will loss interest to response effectively.
Artie, a 36 y/o male, comes to the clinic with chief complaint of: intermittent flank one side flank pain. The pain is an 8 on a scale of 1–10, with 10 being the worst pain he has ever felt. He states the pain lasts from 20–60 minutes and that he must either stand or walk when the pain hits. He also notes that he has blood in his urine. His most likely diagnosis is:
Artie, a 36-year-old man, arrives at the clinic with some complaints, These patient characteristics refer to a kidney disease, to know more we need to understand that.....
Kidney stonesKidney stones (also called renal calculi, nephrolithiasis or urolithiasis) are hard deposits made of minerals and salts that form inside your kidneys.
Dietexcess body weight some medical conditionsand certain supplements and medicationsIt is among the many causes of kidney stones.
Kidney stones can affect any part of your urinary tract — from your kidneys to your bladder. Often, stones form when the urine becomes concentrated, allowing minerals to crystallize and stick together.
Passing kidney stones can be quite painful, but the stones usually cause no permanent damage if they're recognized in a timely fashion. Depending on your situation, you may need nothing more than to take pain medication and drink lots of water to pass a kidney stone. In other instances — for example, if stones become lodged in the urinary tract, are associated with a urinary infection or cause complications — surgery may be needed.
SymptomsA kidney stone typically will not cause symptoms until it moves around within your kidney or passes into your ureters — the tubes connecting the kidneys and the bladder. If it becomes lodged in the ureters, it may block the flow of urine and cause the kidney to swell and the ureter to spasm, which can be very painful. At that point, you may experience these signs and symptoms:
Severe, sharp pain in the side and back, below the ribsOther signs and symptoms may include:
Pink, red or brown urineWith this set of information we can say that this patient has kidney stones, there is no reason to worry because the health professional will solve this problem easily if the recommendations made by him are followed.
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Based on the information provided in this case study, what medical condition is James
Matthias suffering from? Your response must include the name of the condition (diagnosis),
description of condition, along with signs and symptoms present in the patient's scenario
that fit into the diagnosis.
James Matthias is suffering from supraventricular tachycardia, which is a condition characterized by an abnormally fast heart rate & medical history. To accurately diagnose or describe the medical condition.
Medical history refers to a record of a patient's past and current health conditions, treatments, medications, and surgeries. It provides a comprehensive overview of the patient's health status and can help healthcare providers diagnose and treat illnesses more effectively. Medical history also includes information about the patient's family history of medical conditions, lifestyle factors, and other relevant factors that may impact their health. Maintaining an accurate and up-to-date medical history is essential for ensuring the highest quality of care and improving health outcomes for patients.
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If you are analyzing the nutrients in a food, how would you decide if the food is healthy or not? Support your claim.
Answer:
Length – Really long ingredients lists are usually a bad sign, so the shorter the better. ...
Familiarity – You should be able to recognise most of the ingredients.
Unwanted additives – Look out for artificial ingredients.
Explanation:
hope i helped
can uu plz mark me brainlest
Panic reactions can be a common reaction in inexperienced marijuana smokers. Most of the resin is in which part of the cannabis plant?
Most of the resin is found in the trichomes of the cannabis plant.
Trichomes are tiny, hair-like structures on the surface of the plant's flowers and leaves. They serve as a protective mechanism against insects and other threats, but also produce and store the resin containing the sought-after cannabinoids.
When marijuana is consumed, the cannabinoids in the resin interact with the endocannabinoid system in the human body. This system plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological processes, such as mood, pain perception, and appetite. The interaction between cannabinoids and the endocannabinoid system can produce a wide range of effects, including the euphoria and relaxation commonly associated with cannabis use. However, for inexperienced users, the psychoactive effects of THC may lead to panic reactions or increased anxiety.
To avoid these unpleasant experiences, it's essential for new users to start with low doses and gradually increase them as they become more comfortable with the effects of cannabis. Additionally, choosing strains with a higher CBD-to-THC ratio can help counteract some of the anxiety-inducing effects of THC and provide a more balanced experience.
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an aemt is allowed to administer some medications through an intraverous line, which is considered part of the:
An AEMT, an Advanced Emergency Medical Technician, is permitted to administer specific medications through an intravenous line, which is recognized as part of the paramedic training. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an AEMT is permitted to start an IV and use an IV to administer drugs in certain situations, particularly during an emergency.
The AEMT's task is to recognize the patient's symptoms, vital signs, and other related information to decide if the medication is needed, what type of medication, and how much to administer. These medications could include drugs such as glucose, glucagon, and naloxone, which are used to manage high or low blood sugar and to counteract opioid overdoses.An AEMT's ability to administer intravenous drugs is a valuable tool that helps save lives and manage patients' symptoms in life-threatening emergencies.
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How many of the mother-child dyads with children 3 to 5 years old were available for contact for the follow-up study? How many mother-child dyads were included in the initial intervention group for the follow up study? What frequency and percent of the mother-child dyads were unable to be contacted in the intervention group?
Answer:
Did the study include sampling inclusion criteria? What were those criteria? Were these criteria appropriate for this study?a.Yes, the study included a sampling inclusion criteria.b.The criteria was: i.The targeted child was between the ages of 3 to 5 years old at the time of data collection between March 2010 through March 2011ii.The mother had primary custody or regular visitation with the childiii.The dyad lived in state and/or was able to meet in state for the data collection iv.The mother participated in the MTB program or the control condition beyond the initial consent period. c.Yes, the criteria was appropriate for the study.2.Sampling inclusion and exclusion are developed to determine what type of population? What is the accessible population? Document your answer.a.Sampling inclusion criteria are the requirements identified by the researcher that must be present for an element or participant to be included in a sample. b.Sampling exclusion criteria are the requirements identified by the researcher that eliminate or exclude participants from being in a sample. c.Researchers may identify from very broad sampling criteria to very specific criterion. Broad sampling criteria can promote a large, diverse, or heterogeneous population, while specific sampling criteria promote a smaller, more homogeneous population. d.The accessible population is the population in research to which the researchers can apply their conclusions. This population is a subset of the target population and is also known as the study population. It is from the accessible population thatresearchers draw their samples.3.How many of the mother–child dyads with children 3 to 5 years old were available for contact for the follow-up study? How many mother–child dyads were included in the initial intervention group for the follow-up study? What frequency and percent of the mother–child dyads were unable to be contacted in the intervention group?a.50 mother-child dyads (80.6%) were available for contact.b.62 mother-child dyads from the initial intervention group met all the eligibility criteria and were therefore included in the follow up study.c.12 mother-child dyads we unreachable.
Explanation:
Writing prompt: Write an argumentative essay for or against maintaining traditional coming-of-age ceremonies, such as a bar mitzvah or a quince
Answer:
a quince is a party for when a mexican girl is turning fifteen and her parents are telling her that she is finally responsible of taking care of herself. Americans celebrate it even though it is a mexican tradition and it should not be celebrated. it should only be celebrated by mexicans ONLY.
Explanation:
have a nice day!
the client is admitted to the nursing unit for a biopsy of the urinary tract tissue. when planning nursing care for the postoperative period, which nursing intervention documents the prescribed activity level?
The nursing intervention that documents the prescribed activity level for a client who underwent a biopsy of the urinary tract tissue is called "activity restriction."
This intervention involves placing the client on bed rest or limiting their activity level as ordered by the healthcare provider. The level of activity restriction may vary depending on the type of biopsy and the specific postoperative instructions given by the healthcare provider. The nursing staff should monitor the client's compliance with the activity restrictions and provide appropriate interventions to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pneumonia.
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explain how healthcare professionals can attempt to equalize the unequal partnership between the adult patient and the provider.
Health professionals can try to equalize the unequal partnership between the adult patient and the health professional by providing clear information, with integrity and good humor.
What is the doctor-patient relationship?The doctor-patient relationship is an interaction that involves trust and responsibility. It is characterized by the commitments and duties of both actors, permeated by sincerity and love. Without this true interaction, there is no Medicine.
With this information, we can conclude that health professionals can try to equalize the unequal partnership between the adult patient and the health professional by providing clear information, with integrity and good humor.
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What are the components of the communication process?