a client has partial-thickness burns on both lower extremities and portions of the trunk. which i.v. fluid does the nurse plan to administer first?

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse intends to start by giving an intravenous infusion containing lacerated Ringer's solution.

What do does a nurse do?

Nurse were engaged in every community, large or little, through birth to the end of life. In addition to managing cases and providing direct patient care, nurses also establish nursing practice standards, develop quality control processes, and oversee complex nursing care systems.

What type of nurses are the highest paid?

Salaries of a certified registered nurse anesthetist. According to U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Licensed Registered Nurse Anesthetists have had an annual median compensation of $195,610, making them the highest paid nursing specialties.

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Related Questions

How is not a characteristic of language ? a. By speaking b. By writing c. By coding d. All above​

Answers

Answer:

Didn't get your question.

I think the answer is c , I hope this helps :)

Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?

Answers

I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others

What might a person whose greatest motivation in dietary choices is convenience be most likely to eat? Blended smoothie with milk; yogurt; sliced bananas, strawberries, peaches, and avocado; and flax seed TV dinner Grilled fresh vegetables Homemade lasagna Homemade chocolate chip cookies

Answers

Answer: TV dinner

Explanation:

I assume it would take the least amount of time to cook, and it’s pre-made

What is the value of reflecting on your nursing/student performance and how will this impact
safe nursing care?
2) How does continuing education/life-long learning impact safe nursing care?

Answers

Reflecting on your nursing/student performance will impact safe nursing care as it will motivate the nurse to continuously improve and learn. Continuing education/life-long learning impact safe nursing care by improving critical thinking and problem solving skills.

Reflecting on nursing performance will improve the quality of care and also provides multi disciplinary approach to problem solving. Hence it will motivate and to perform better continuously.

Safe nursing care aims to reduce the chances of risk, errors and harm that can occur to a patient during the provision of a health care.

Life long learning gives critical thinking skills and problem solving skills that are needed to resolve the issues that the nurse may encounter when taking care of the patients.

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Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice An undercooked hamburger patty is the most likely source of giardia. In the United States, people rarely suffer from food-borne illnesses. A food's odor or appearance is not a reliable indicator of whether it's safe to eat. The United States Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for inspecting local restaurants and grocery stores to ensure they meet food safety standards.

Answers

Answer:

Giardiasis is an intestinal illness caused by infection with the parasite Giardia lamblia, which lives in contaminated water. Although the illness most often occurs in developing countries, giardiasis is also a common cause of waterborne illness in the United States. A person can remain infected with Giardia until the infection is diagnosed and treated. In developing areas of the world, it is common for more than 20% of a country's population to have ongoing Giardia infection. In the United States, only 1 or 2 out of every 10,000 people have Giardia in a typical year, but the infection is found in about 1 out of 3 people who have prolonged diarrhea symptoms if they have recently traveled to a developing country.

Explanation:

Why should a PA be aware of the Medicare/Medicaid system of insurance?
A. They can avoid working at clinics that accept these programs.
B. PAs are not allowed to accept Medicare/Medicaid, so they should know who uses those programs.
C. These programs are often on the tests in PA school.
D. PAs often work with underserved populations, who may have a higher rate of Medicare/Medicaid.

Answers

The answer is D, pdas often work with u deserved populations

Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke

Answers

Answer: Embolic stroke

Explanation:

Embolic stroke is a form of stroke thqt occurs when a debris or a blood clot travels from one body part and then stays in the narrower brain artery, thereby blocking the flow of blood into the brain.

It should be noted that Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for embolic stroke.

Answer:

Embolic

Explanation:

They all potentiate the possibility of a blood clot to form

What is a prescription order? a drug that can only be dispensed by a doctor’s order because it may be dangerous the standardizing steps used by the pharmacy technician to fill the doctor’s orders a lawful order for a medication to be given in a specific dose and for a specific amount of time the process of verifying patient data to ensure the doctor’s orders are met correctly

Answers

Answer:

What is a drug that can only be dispensed by a doctor’s order because it may be dangerous

Explanation:

Typically a 'prescription' is thought of an an outpatient medication request, and a medication 'order' is considered an inpatient medication request. Traditionally a prescription is something you may give the patient to fill at a pharmacy, and an order is something a nurse may administer.

I am answering this question, what is a prescription?

Which of the following is not a feature of the major spinal cord tracts (pathways)? A. Sensory or motor function B. Number of neurons in the tract C. Origin and termination D. Size of the axons in the tract

Answers

The correct answer is B, the number of neurons in the tract is not a feature of the major spinal cord tracts. Spinal cord tracts, also known as pathways, are groups of axons that carry information up and down the spinal cord between the brain and the body.

The major spinal cord tracts can be categorized into two groups: sensory tracts, which carry information from the body to the brain, and motor tracts, which carry information from the brain to the body. The features of the major spinal cord tracts include sensory or motor function, origin and termination, and size of the axons in the tract.

Sensory tracts include the spinothalamic tract, which carries pain and temperature information, and the dorsal column tract, which carries touch and vibration information. Motor tracts include the corticospinal tract, which controls voluntary movements, and the vestibulospinal tract, which controls balance and posture.

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Your friends Russ and Damion, invite you to watch the NBA Finals. They have a
luxurious spread of meats, cheeses, chips, pretzels, and dips. What is a party without some
fruit punch and lemonade? While cheering on his BFF Kevin, Russ stuffs his face with a square
piece of Colby Jack Cheese. Suddenly in the cheering of a big-time defensive play, you notice
Russ looking panicked and reaching for a drink of his lemonade. He then begins to place his
hands around his throat.

Your friends Russ and Damion, invite you to watch the NBA Finals. They have aluxurious spread of meats,

Answers

Answer:

fruit punch and lemonade please

Explanation:

Wow so he got posioned

Which are components of the integumentary system? Select five responses.
freckles
stratum granulosum
hyperdermis
keratin
dermis
stratum corneum

Answers

Answer:

freckles

stratum granulosum

keratin

dermis

stratum corneum

According to the context, the components of the integumentary system are:

FrecklesStratum granulosumKeratinDermisStratum corneum

What is the integumentary system?

It is made up of the skin and what is defined as its annexes; that is, nails, hair, sebaceous glands, freckles, the keratin in the stratum corneum that is arranged as compact sheets, among others.

It covers the body and protects it from friction and trauma, on the one hand, and from infections, on the other, it is also a thermoregulatory element.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the context, the integumentary system is the system composed of the skin and its derivatives.

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When working together to move an animal, what is the most important thing?
O A) A good grip
OB) Communication
OC) Staying quiet so the animal doesn't get scared
OD) None of the answers are correct

Answers

Communication hope hope this helps

Vomiting is a result of a central nervous system (cns) injury is caused by__________

Answers

Vomiting is a result of a central nervous system (CNS) injury is caused by emetic stimuli.  

Vomiting are common gastrointestinal complaints that can be triggered by diverse emetic stimuli through central and / or peripheral nervous systems. Vomiting are considered as defense mechanisms when threatening toxins / drugs / bacteria / viruses / fungi enter the body via the enteral or parenteral routes.

Vomiting is often preceded by retching, where the content of gastrointestinal tract is forced into the esophagus, without expulsion of the vomitus.

Vomiting is also considered as essential protective defense processes by which humans as well as vomit-competent animals tend to avoid ingestion or digestion of potentially toxic substances.

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IS PEPTO BISMO SUPPOSED TO BE INJECTED INTO YOU BLOOD STREAM HELP!!

Answers

It is supposed to be taken through the mouth for stomach pain, not injected like an IV, or a shot.

Hyperglycemia in individuals with diabetic neuropathy leads to the inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in the dorsal root ganglion. Which additional process will be inhibited in the dorsal root ganglion under conditions that cause diabetic neuropathy? A) the glyoxylate cycle B) lactic acid fermentation C) the citric acid cycle D) glycolysis

Answers

Сbecause it looks right the citric acid cycle is green

Answer: (C) The citric Acid Cycle

Explanation:

The CDC and OSHA both influence pharmacies. In what ways do these two organizations influence pharmacy
procedures and policies? (Select all that apply)

They ensure that personal protective equipment is available to employees.

They provide recommendations to support wellness.

They ensure that chemicals are stored safely and securely.

They perform research.
They define the classes of drugs.

They differentiate between prescription and nonprescription drugs.

Answers

Answer:

A, B, D

Explanation:

hope this was helpful

a 87 year- old caucasian woman is seen in the office with the sudden onset of severe back pain in the mid dorsal region, occurring after she lifted her dog to give it a bath. her previous health has been good, though she had a mastectomy for carcinoma 14 years previously and she has a chronic cough, which has lately been worse. she smokes over a pack a day and has for more than 30 years. examination reveals a thin woman with prominent dorsal kyphosis. she is very tender to dorsal spine percussion and splints the back markedly, preventing most motion. what diagnosis seems most likely?

Answers

The diagnosis seems most likely to be osteoporotic fracture of the thoracic spine.

What is thoracic spine?

The upper and middle region of the back is where the thoracic spine is found. The thoracic spine contains twelve vertebrae, labelled T-1 through T-12. T-1 through T-5 nerves affect muscles in the upper chest, mid-back, and abdominal muscles. Each number on the spinal column corresponds to the nerves that run through that region of the spinal cord.

What is osteoporotic fracture?

Osteoporotic fractures, also known as fragility fractures or low-trauma fractures, are those brought on by falls of at least one metre from the ground and without significant trauma, such as a car collision. The spine is where osteoporosis-related fractures most frequently happen. In the United States, there are an estimated 1.5 million vertebral compression fractures, often known as spinal fractures. They occur roughly two times as frequently as other fractures, like shattered hips and wrists, that are typically associated with osteoporosis.

Thus from above conclusion we can say that the diagnosis seems most likely to be osteoporotic fracture of the thoracic spine.

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Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom

Answers

Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.

What is adult safeguarding about?

There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.

In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.

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myplate promotes which of the following in comparison to current general eating patterns in the united states?

Answers

the answer is: more consumption of legumes

less consumption of added sugars

more consumption of vegetables and fruits

Which of the following is a genetic, degenerative disease that is characterized by a weakening of the muscles?

Compartment syndrome

Muscular dystrophy

Mytonia

Muscle atrophy

Answers

Answer:

Muscular dystrophy is a genetic, degenerative disease that is characterized by weakening of muscles

Answer:muscular dystrophy

Explanation:

Discuss how the use of the EHR benefits the patient. Give one example of how the EHR can be used to help patients (adults, elderly, pediatric). Discuss the medical assistant's role in helping patients feel comfortable with their personal information on the EHR

Answers

The use of Electronic Health Records (EHR) brings several benefits to patients. One key advantage is improved access to comprehensive and up-to-date medical information. With EHRs, healthcare providers have quick access to a patient's medical history, including diagnoses, medications, allergies, and test results.

An example of how EHRs benefit patients is in the case of pediatric care. EHRs enable pediatricians to track a child's growth and development over time, ensuring timely immunizations, monitoring milestones, and detecting any potential issues. The EHR can provide reminders for well-child visits and screenings, ensuring that children receive appropriate preventive care.

Medical assistants play a crucial role in helping patients feel comfortable with their personal information on the EHR. They can explain the purpose and benefits of the EHR to patients, addressing any concerns or misconceptions they may have. Medical assistants can also ensure patient privacy and confidentiality by adhering to strict security protocols and explaining the measures in place to safeguard patient information. Building trust and rapport with patients is vital, and medical assistants can play a supportive role in facilitating open communication between patients and healthcare providers regarding their EHR data.

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When severe toxic overdose reaction occurs the proper treatment would be A. immediate administration of valium IV. B. Answer administration of valium if seizures have not abated after 15 minutes of seizures. C. give epinephrine IV. D. inhalation of amyl nitrate.

Answers

C. give epinephrine treatment when severe toxic overdose reaction occurs.

What is the remedy for systemic toxicity?

If systemic toxicity is predicted, discontinue local anaesthetic administration, call emergency services, secure the airway, administer 100% oxygen, and if necessary, perform tracheal intubation and artificial respiration right away. Convulsions can be handled with benzodiazepines.

What harmful effects do medications have?

Drug toxicity can manifest behaviorally in a range of ways, involving diminished locomotor activity, loss of motor coordination, and cognitive impairment. Physiological impacts can include cell damage, neuronal death, and messed-up hormone cycles, as examples.

What function does amyl nitrite serve?

By breathing amyl nitrite, which itself is related to nitrate medications, angina episodes can indeed be relieved of their unpleasantness. It functions by widening blood arteries, boosting the flow of blood and oxygen to the heart, and lightening the stress on the organ.

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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c

Answers

The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.

Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.

4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.

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Reilly is a nursing assistant working with Hunter. Reilly didn't get a chance to read Hunter's chart before entering
Hunter's room. Reilly introduces himself and says he is going to take Hunter's vitals. Hunter seems to understand but
is quiet. When Reilly turns away to get equipment, he keeps talking to Hunter to make him comfortable. He notices that
when he turns away from Hunter, Hunter waves his arms until Reilly is speaking directly face-to-face. Reilly looks at
Hunter's chart and brings in an interpreter for sign language. Which kind of communication barrier did Reilly
overcome?

Answers

Answer:

A language communication barrier

Explanation:

sign LANGUAGE  :D

Mark enters a patient's room and finds the patient kneeling on the floor. The patient is chanting something that Mark does not understand. He realizes that the patient is praying and most likely a Muslim. What should he do?​

Answers

Answer:

Mark should try to be respectful and not interrupt the patient while they are praying. If the patient is comfortable doing so, he could ask them if they would like him to wait until they're finished before continuing the conversation. He could also ask if there is anything he can do to help make the patient more comfortable. Additionally, he could show respect for the patient's religious beliefs by asking if there is anything else he can do to help them during the prayer.

Explanation:

The patient's right to worship should be respected. It is not in order if Mark interrupts the patient while in prayers. Interrupting the patient while praying can be termed as a violation of his fundamental right to worship.

a nurse is maintaining a client's continuous bladder irrigation. when appraising the effectiveness of this therapy, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?

Answers

Make an evaluation of your abdomen. If there is stomach soreness or bladder distention, the nurse may be able to tell by palpating the bladder.

What does nursing continuous bladder irrigation entail?

Using sterile fluids to flush the bladder is a medical treatment known as continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). After surgery on the urinary system, it is used by medical professionals to prevent or dissolve blood clots. A tiny tube that delivers sterile solution then removes the bladder's contents and collects them in a bag.

Which conditions call for catheter irrigation?

In general, doctors would advise bladder irrigation if blood is present in the urine and this causes it to seem black or if there are indications of a catheter obstruction. Reduced urine production is one indication when a catheter is clogged.

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How do parents and caregivers provide everything a baby physically needs?

Answers

Answer:

by giving the baby attention, food, and safety.

The parents can ensure this by being near whenever the baby cries.

They give them ,food ,water, attention’ toys. They are always with the child. They change them.

preindopril mechanism of action ?

Answers

Answer:

inhibition of ACE activity.

Explanation:

The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.

Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).

Which statement made by the client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus indicates a need for clarification regarding diet therapy

Answers

The client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus indicates a need for clarification regarding diet therapy.

Here are a few examples of statements that may indicate a need for clarification regarding diet therapy:

1. "I can eat as much fruit as I want since it's healthy, right?"

2. "I don't need to worry about carbs since I'm only supposed to avoid sugar."

3. "I can still have fast food as long as I get the grilled chicken instead of the fried."

4. "I don't need to take my medication if I just eat a low-carb diet, right?"

5. "I can still have desserts as long as they're labeled 'sugar-free' or 'diabetic-friendly.'"

These statements reflect common misconceptions about diet therapy for type 2 diabetes and may indicate that the client needs further education and clarification from their healthcare provider or a registered dietitian.

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What can you determine from the Nutrition facts label about the vitamin D content in this cereal?a. this cereal is an excellent natural source of vitamin D b. you should limit the intake of this cereal to avoid vitamin D toxicity c. combined with milk, this cereal is a moderate source of vitamin d .d. supplemental forms of vitamin d are not readily absorbed into the body

Answers

From the Nutrition Facts label, you can determine that combined with milk, this cereal is a moderate source of vitamin D. The label provides information about the nutrient content per serving, including the amount of vitamin D present in the cereal.

To determine whether a food item is an excellent natural source of a specific nutrient, such as vitamin D, you would need to compare its content to the recommended daily intake (RDI) or the % Daily Value (%DV) listed on the label. If the cereal provides a significant portion of the RDI or has a high %DV for vitamin D, it could be considered an excellent natural source. However, this information is not provided in the question.There is no information on the label about limiting the intake of the cereal to avoid vitamin D toxicity or the absorption of supplemental forms of vitamin D. These considerations would depend on the specific nutrient content and individual circumstances, which are not provided in the question.

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