Answers
The infection from an exogenous source will be recognized by the nurse as having come from "sources in the external environment, such as water, food, soil, or air". Thus, the correct answer is D.
Exogenous infections come from external sources such as the food, soil water, air, and so on. Endogenous infections, like opportunistic infections, are obtained through the host's own microorganisms. In addition to other people, such as from mother to child during pregnancy (congenital illnesses), inanimate objects, animals, biting arthropods, and inanimate objects, the source of the infectious agent might also be another human. Infections are not brought on by vitamins or inherited characteristics.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
(A) The host's own microbial flora, as would be the case in an opportunistic infection.(B) An inherited trait from the maternal side of the family.(C) The host ingesting excessive multivitamins.(D) Sources in the external environment, such as the water, food, soil, or air.The correct answer is D.
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Related Questions
sensory memory lasts a fraction of a second before the information is lost. please select the best answer from the choices provided
True
False
Answers
It is TRUE that sensory memory lasts a fraction of a second before the information is lost.
Sensory memory refers to the initial stage of memory processing where information from the senses is briefly registered and retained for a very short period of time. It acts as a buffer, holding sensory information for a fraction of a second before either being transferred to short-term memory or being forgotten. The duration of sensory memory is relatively brief, typically lasting only a few hundred milliseconds. This rapid decay of sensory memory allows for the constant updating of new sensory information and prevents information overload. Therefore, it is accurate to say that sensory memory lasts only a fraction of a second before the information is lost.
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Last Med Term questions part 2
Answers
Answer:
31.c 32.c 33.b 34.b 35.d
Explanation:
hope this helps. :) what about question 26 though?
Two tablet per day 30-day upply 13 tablet per bottle how many bottle in extra tablet will I need
Answers
If you require a 30-day supply of two tablets per day, you will want a total of 60 tablets (30 days x 2 tablets per day).
You would require 5 bottles (60 tablets / 13 tablets per bottle) to obtain the precise number of tablets required for the 30-day supply if each bottle contained 13 tablets. If you have extra tablets, you can calculate how many bottles you'd need by dividing the entire amount by 13.
Give an example?
Since there are 13 tablets in each bottle and 26 extra tablets, you would require 2 bottles.
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Name
momory
1
Section
Date
4 You are riding with an ambulance crew who is called to the scene of a motor vehicle accident caused by texting
while driving. As the paramedics are loading one of the victims into the ambulance, you are asked to describe
his most serious wounds to the emergency department so they can be prepared for his arrival. Describe the
location of his wounds, indicated on Figure 1. 20 by three X marks, using at least three correct regional and
directional terms.
A
C
Х
XB
Answers
Based on Figure 1, it appears that the victim has three wounds marked by X's on the body. The wound marked by XA is located on the left side of the head, above the ear. The wound marked by XB is located on the right side of the chest, near the armpit. The wound marked by XC is located on the right leg, near the knee.
Some additional regional and directional terms that could be used to describe the location of these wounds include:
XA: anterior, superior, lateral
XB: posterior, superior, medial
XC: posterior, inferior, medial
A short-term effect of growth hormone is: fat breakdown. The stimulation of glucose uptake by cells. The production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF). Protein synthesis
Answers
One short-term effect of growth hormone is the stimulation of glucose uptake by cells, while another effect is the production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF).
Additionally, growth hormone promotes protein synthesis, leading to the breakdown of fat.
Growth hormone plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological processes in the body. One of the short-term effects of growth hormone is the stimulation of glucose uptake by cells. Growth hormone promotes the transport of glucose into cells, allowing them to use it as a source of energy. This effect helps maintain proper blood sugar levels and supports cellular metabolism.
Another short-term effect of growth hormone is the production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF). Growth hormone stimulates the liver and other tissues to produce IGF, which plays a vital role in promoting growth and development. IGF acts as a mediator of many of the growth-promoting effects of growth hormone.
Furthermore, growth hormone also stimulates protein synthesis in cells. This leads to the production of new proteins, which are essential for tissue growth, repair, and maintenance. As a result, growth hormone indirectly contributes to the breakdown of fat by increasing protein synthesis, which can help in the utilization of stored fat for energy.
In summary, the short-term effects of growth hormone include the stimulation of glucose uptake by cells, the production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and the promotion of protein synthesis, which ultimately contributes to the breakdown of fat.
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A 150-lblb person burns about 2900 calories to run a marathon. How much energy is burned in kjkj? assume two significant figures
Answers
The calories burned can helps to reduce the fat. According to the given scenario, 12133.6 kJ of energy is burned.
What is a calorie?Calorie is the unit of measurement of energy in the food.
The nutritional calorie is the heat energy needed to increase the temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius.
A nutritional calorie, or kilocalorie, is equal to 1000 calories.
One large calorie is 4.184 kilojoules: 1 Cal = 4.184 kJ.
E = 2900 Cal energy burnt.E = 2900 Cal * 4.184 kJ/Cal,E = 12133.6 kJ.Thus, 12133.6 kJ of energy is burned.
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Now you have a new crisis to confront. Your hospital received an unannounced visit from a CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) surveyor following a serious patient safety complaint. Your hospital is well-known both regionally and nationally for quality and safety, but the complaint threatens the hospital's CMS enrollment, accreditation and reputation. Your hospital has an interim, novice quality director who was required to respond to the visit. The surveyor determined that a violation did occur, and the hospital was given 60 days to resolve the issue or lose its Medicare funding.
In 500+words, identify the risk to the organization from the violation of patient safety and how the crisis could affect the mission, vision and values of the organization. Explains how to investigate this matter and react to any deficiencies in care. Details a hospital risk management information system to provide tools for documenting incidents, tracking risk, reporting trends and explain the moral, ethical and legal imperatives in these actions. Develops a plan for addressing patient and family grievances and how to resolve them. Explains how the hospital has addressed all these areas in a communication plan to the CMS surveyor so the organization does not lose CMS funding after the 60 days has expired.
Answers
The violation of patient safety poses several risks to the organization. Firstly, it threatens the hospital's CMS enrollment, accreditation, and reputation.
If the issue is not resolved within 60 days, the hospital may lose its Medicare funding, which would have a significant financial impact. Additionally, the violation could damage the hospital's standing as a provider of quality and safe healthcare, potentially leading to a decline in patient trust and a negative impact on the hospital's mission, vision, and values.
To investigate the matter, a thorough analysis of the incident should be conducted. This may involve reviewing medical records, conducting interviews with staff involved, and collecting relevant data. It is important to identify the root cause of the violation and determine any deficiencies in care that may have contributed to it. This investigation should be carried out in a fair and objective manner to ensure a comprehensive understanding of the situation.
To react to any deficiencies in care, the hospital should implement corrective actions. These actions may include revising protocols and procedures, providing additional training to staff, and enhancing monitoring and supervision systems. By addressing the deficiencies, the hospital can improve patient safety and prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.
A hospital risk management information system can be implemented to support incident documentation, risk tracking, and trend reporting. This system can help identify patterns and trends in patient safety incidents, enabling the hospital to take proactive measures to mitigate risks. It is important for the system to be user-friendly, accessible to all relevant staff, and capable of generating reports to assist in decision-making processes.
In responding to patient and family grievances, it is crucial to establish a clear and transparent process. The hospital should have a designated department or personnel responsible for addressing grievances and resolving them promptly. Communication channels, such as a dedicated hotline or email address, should be established to receive and document grievances. By providing a clear pathway for resolution, the hospital can demonstrate its commitment to patient satisfaction and improve overall patient experience.
In the communication plan to the CMS surveyor, the hospital should outline the steps taken to address the violation and prevent future incidents. This includes detailing the investigation process, corrective actions implemented, and the utilization of the risk management information system. The plan should emphasize the hospital's commitment to patient safety, as well as its adherence to moral, ethical, and legal imperatives. By demonstrating a proactive approach and a commitment to continuous improvement, the hospital can work towards maintaining its CMS funding even after the 60-day period has expired.
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if a nursing assistant sees a resident who is not on his assignment sheet but who needs help, what should the NA do?
Answers
Answer:
An NA will receive assignments to perform tasks, care, and other duties for specific residents. If the NA sees a resident who needs helps even if the resident is not on their assigned sheet, the NA should provide the care.
Explanation:
Sorry if it does not explain that well.. I got this from Google... But at least I tryed.
The nursing assistant must give the needed care to them even if the resident is not being assigned in her area or assignment sheet.
Who is a nursing assistant?The person who assists with nursing duties in patient care including help with grooming, bathing, feeding, and activities of daily life is referred to as a nursing assistant.
As in the given scenario, the nursing assistant should give the needed care to them even if that resident is not being assigned in her area or assignment sheet.
Thus, this can be the way of treating the needy even in case where resident is not being assigned in her area or assignment sheet.
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what would increase the risk of sedation in a patient receiving meclizine? (select all that apply.)
Answers
a) Co-administration with opioids and d) History of alcohol abuse increase the risk of sedation in a patient receiving meclizine.
Meclizine is an antihistamine medication used to treat nausea, vomiting, and dizziness associated with motion sickness. It can cause drowsiness and sedation as a side effect. Co-administration with opioids, which also have sedative effects, can increase the risk of excessive sedation and respiratory depression.
Similarly, a history of alcohol abuse can also increase the risk of sedation when taking meclizine. Co-administration with stimulants, such as caffeine, is not expected to increase the risk of sedation. A history of liver disease may affect the metabolism and elimination of meclizine, but it is not a significant risk factor for sedation.
Therefore, the correct option is (a) & (d).
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The question is incomplete. Complete question is:
What would increase the risk of sedation in a patient receiving meclizine? Select all that apply.
a) Co-administration with opioids
b) Co-administration with stimulants
c) History of liver disease
d) History of alcohol abuse
Why is the presence of microfilaria important when recommending a treatment plan for dogs?
Answers
Answer:
I hope you have gotten your answer
Explanation:
Microfilaria
A. reconditum is a microfilaria-producing (filaroid) nematode that lives in the canine subcutis and on muscle fasciae.
Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.
-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.
-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.
A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.
-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.
-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.
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Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.
-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.
-
Middle layer of the meninges.
-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body
Answers
The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
What is the blood brain barrier?This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.
Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
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¿Qué opinas sobre la reforma de la salud en Colombia?
Answers
Answer:
?/
Explanation:
Which action would the nurse take for a client who is a psychologist and has questioned the authority of the treatment team and advised other clients that their treatment plans are wrong
Answers
As the client, a psychologist has questioned the authority of the treatment team and advised other clients that their treatment plans are wrong, it becomes imperative for the nurse to intervene and handle the situation. In this case, the nurse must follow the code of ethics and take the necessary action to safeguard the client's interests. The nurse should approach the psychologist and discuss the issue with them privately.The nurse should try to gain the client's trust and help them understand the importance of following the treatment plan.
The nurse should also encourage the psychologist to ask questions and express their concerns during their appointments with the treatment team.The nurse should provide the psychologist with clear explanations of their treatment plans and help them understand the importance of each aspect of the plan. The nurse should also encourage the psychologist to ask questions and express their concerns during their appointments with the treatment team. It is essential to ensure that the client's rights are respected and that the treatment team delivers the best care possible to meet the client's needs.Answer:In the event of a client, a psychologist questioning the authority of the treatment team and advising other clients that their treatment plans are wrong, the nurse should follow the code of ethics and take the necessary action to safeguard the client's interests. The nurse should approach the psychologist privately and discuss the issue with them. The nurse should try to gain the client's trust and help them understand the importance of following the treatment plan.
The nurse should also encourage the psychologist to ask questions and express their concerns during their appointments with the treatment team. The nurse should provide the psychologist with clear explanations of their treatment plans and help them understand the importance of each aspect of the plan. It is essential to ensure that the client's rights are respected, and the treatment team delivers the best care possible to meet the client's needs. The above actions taken by the nurse will help the client gain trust in the treatment team and ultimately improve the chances of successful treatment.
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The nurse would need to take appropriate action to address the behavior of the psychologist client by Documentation, Communication, Collaboration, Professional Boundaries and Referral.
Documentation: The nurse should document the incidents of the psychologist questioning the authority of the treatment team and providing conflicting advice to other clients. Accurate and detailed documentation will serve as evidence of the client's behavior.
Communication: The nurse should initiate a conversation with the psychologist client to discuss their actions and the potential impact on the treatment team and other clients. Open and non-confrontational communication is essential to gain a better understanding of the client's perspective.
Collaboration: If possible, the nurse can involve the treatment team, including the psychologist's colleagues, in a collaborative discussion to address the concerns and ensure a unified approach to treatment. This can help foster a supportive and cohesive working environment.
Professional Boundaries: The nurse should emphasize the importance of maintaining professional boundaries and respecting the expertise and decisions of the treatment team. Reinforcing ethical guidelines and professional standards can help the psychologist understand the potential consequences of their actions.
Referral: If the behavior persists and significantly affects the therapeutic environment, it may be necessary to refer the psychologist client to a higher authority or supervisor within the organization. This step ensures that appropriate measures are taken to address the situation.
It is important for the nurse to approach the situation with empathy, professionalism, and a focus on maintaining a therapeutic environment for all clients involved.
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"Present Time" patient details are summarized by using what format?
Answers
Answer: c. OPQRST
Explanation:
OPQRST is an acronym that is very useful in the medical profession as it serves as a guide to diagnose patients and find out more about what the pain they are going through.
The acronym stands for;
Onset - with what intensity did the pain hit. In other Has it progressed steadily or remained constant. Provocation or Palliation - have there been any external factors that aggravate the conditions?Quality - what type of pain it is. For instance is the pain sharp, crushing, dull, etcetera. Such a question would fall under here.Region and Radiation - Where is the pain located and does it remain there or radiate to other parts of the body as well.Severity - Just how heavily is the pain being felt. How severe is it. Usually a scale of 1 to 10 is used with 10 being excruciating pain and 0 being no pain at all.Time (History) - How long has the pain being going on. How often is such pain experienced if ever. The goal being to find out if it a recurring pain as well its current duration.In which part of the world is undernourishment most concentrated?
Answers
Answer:
I think it's Africa because on quizlet when that was asked it seemed that Africa was the right answer to that question but I'm unsure and if not then I don't know.
Why does my dwarf hamster keep having seizures and how do I fix it
Answers
Answer:
They probably want to be moved or placed somewhere else in your house they can get I guess bored kind of like dogs if they stay in the same place all day or for a long period of time.
Explanation:
this is what I’m assuming might be the reason.
A/An is a type of blood cell that's also called a red blood cell. a) Jeukocyte O b) thrombocyte c) plasma d) erythrocyte
Answers
Answer:
red blood cell, also called erythrocyte,
Explanation:
Hope it helps
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A client has been prescribed peginterferon alfa-2a 180 mcg weekly for chronic hepatitis c. which information should be included in the discharge teaching?
Answers
During discharge teaching for a client prescribed peginterferon alfa-2a 180 mcg weekly for chronic hepatitis C, several important pieces of information should be included.
1. Medication administration: Explain the proper technique for administering peginterferon alfa-2a, including the correct dosage, route (usually subcutaneous injection), and frequency (once a week).
2. Injection site care: Emphasize the importance of maintaining proper injection site hygiene to prevent infections. Advise the client to clean the injection site with an alcohol swab before and after each injection.
3. Side effects: Discuss common side effects that may occur with peginterferon alfa-2a, such as flu-like symptoms (fever, chills, muscle aches), fatigue, nausea, and injection site reactions. Inform the client that these side effects are usually temporary and can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers or other prescribed medications.
4. Monitoring: Explain the need for regular monitoring of liver function tests and complete blood count. Emphasize the importance of attending follow-up appointments to assess treatment response and adjust the therapy if needed.
5. Precautions: Discuss the importance of avoiding alcohol and any other hepatotoxic substances, as they can worsen liver damage. Advise the client to follow a healthy lifestyle, including a balanced diet, regular exercise, and adequate rest.
6. Contraception: If applicable, discuss the need for effective contraception during treatment, as peginterferon alfa-2a can cause birth defects. Encourage the client to discuss this with their healthcare provider to choose the most suitable method.
7. Support: Provide information about local support groups or resources that can help the client cope with the emotional and physical challenges of living with chronic hepatitis C.
Remember to tailor the discharge teaching to the specific needs of the client, taking into consideration their understanding, cultural background, and any additional medications or comorbidities they may have.
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In 32 days, a person saved $56. What was the
person's average daily savings?
Answers
$1.80✅
In 32 days, a person saved $56. The person's average daily savings The correct answer is $1.80.
What is Average daily savings?Although it serves as a baseline for the general interest rate environment, the average savings account rate is not one that you should accept.
Instead, strive for annual percentage yields (APYs) that are significantly higher than the US average, like those provided by high-yield savings accounts.
18 weekly survey of banks, the national average interest for savings accounts is 0.23 percent APY.
Therefore, In 32 days, a person saved $56. The person's average daily savings The correct answer is $1.80.
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what are the main symptoms of lactose intolerance? multiple choice diarrhea and itching shortness of breath and bloating diarrhea and bloating internal bleeding and headaches dehydration and itching
Answers
The main symptoms of lactose intolerance include diarrhea and bloating. Other symptoms such as itching, shortness of breath, internal bleeding, headaches, dehydration, and itching are not typically associated with lactose intolerance.
Lactose intolerance is a condition in which the body is unable to fully digest lactose, a sugar found in milk and dairy products, due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase. The main symptoms of lactose intolerance occur after consuming lactose-containing foods and can vary in severity.
The most common symptoms are diarrhea and bloating. When lactose is not properly broken down in the digestive system, it can ferment in the colon, leading to the production of gas and water, resulting in diarrhea and bloating.
Symptoms such as itching, shortness of breath, internal bleeding, headaches, and dehydration are not typically associated with lactose intolerance. These symptoms may be indicative of other health conditions and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional.
It's important to note that lactose intolerance symptoms can vary among individuals. Some may experience mild symptoms, while others may have more severe reactions. If you suspect lactose intolerance, it is recommended to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management of the condition.
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Your friends Russ and Damion, invite you to watch the NBA Finals. They have a
luxurious spread of meats, cheeses, chips, pretzels, and dips. What is a party without some
fruit punch and lemonade? While cheering on his BFF Kevin, Russ stuffs his face with a square
piece of Colby Jack Cheese. Suddenly in the cheering of a big-time defensive play, you notice
Russ looking panicked and reaching for a drink of his lemonade. He then begins to place his
hands around his throat.
Answers
Answer:
fruit punch and lemonade please
Explanation:
find the value of f(2)-f(0, if
4. Find the value of ƒ (2) – ƒ (0), if MINO- a. 3 b. -1 c. 2 d. 0 e. 1 (2-x, x²-x+1, f(x) = {²/2 x < 1 x≥1
Answers
The value of ƒ(2) – ƒ(0) is -1. The correct option is e. 1. Given the function ƒ(x) = {x²/2 if x < 1, x≥1}, we need to find the difference between the function evaluated at x = 2 and x = 0.
For x = 2, since 2 ≥ 1, we use the second part of the function:
ƒ(2) = 2 - 2 + 1 = 1.
For x = 0, since 0 < 1, we use the first part of the function:
ƒ(0) = (0²)/2 = 0.
Now, we can find the difference:
ƒ(2) - ƒ(0) = 1 - 0 = 1.
Therefore, the correct option is e. 1.
In this problem, we are given a piecewise function that behaves differently based on the value of x. For x values less than 1, the function evaluates to x²/2, and for x values greater than or equal to 1, the function evaluates to x - x + 1, which simplifies to 1. By substituting the given values of x = 2 and x = 0 into the respective parts of the function, we find the values of ƒ(2) and ƒ(0) and then compute the difference. The result is -1, indicating that ƒ(2) is one unit smaller than ƒ(0).
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the nurse is caring for a client who is demonstrating signs of aggression. the nurse should plan to take which action? select all that apply.
Answers
Keep your distance with the client in a safe manner is the plan of action of nurse.
What is aggresive behaviour?Social psychology defines aggression as any action or behavior intended to cause physical injury to another person, an animal, or property. Physical violence is just one aspect of aggressive behavior. strong language, yelling, and profanity.In Management of Aggressive Behavior (MOAB), principles, methods, and skills for identifying, minimizing, and controlling violent and aggressive behavior are presented. Additionally, the training teaches gentle and kind ways to handle abrasive individuals.Physical or verbal aggression is both possible. Unintentional, expressive, instrumental, and hostile aggression are the four different subtypes of aggressive behavior.For more information on aggressive behavior kindly visit to
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The heart is situated in the ____ surrounded by the pericardial sac.
Answers
Answer:
mediastinum
Explanation:
Within the mediastinum, the heart is separated from the other mediastinal structures by a tough membrane known as the pericardium, or pericardial sac, and sits in its own space called the pericardial cavity. ... The heart is located within the thoracic cavity, medially between the lungs in the mediastinum.
Help me out, I’m busy doing a bunch of things and I can’t do this one
Answers
The majority of epileptics lead active lives. However, for other people, the chance of an early death is higher.
What is Epilepsy ?A condition where the brain's nerve cell activity is messed up, leading to seizures.
A genetic condition or an acquired brain lesion, such as a trauma or stroke, may cause epilepsy.
A person has strange behavior, symptoms, and sensations during a seizure, which can occasionally cause unconsciousness. Between seizures, there are not many symptoms.Medications are typically used to treat epilepsy, though occasionally surgery, gadgets, or dietary changes are also used.We are aware that the risk of epilepsy-related death can be decreased by maintaining the best seizure control and living safely.To know more about Epilepsy please click here ; https://brainly.com/question/28131457
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15. regarding tubuloglomerular feedback, which is true a. tends to maintain renal blood flow b. the sensor is JG cell c. operates via contraction of the mesangial cells d. acts to reduce GFR if the flow rate in the ascending loop of Henle falls e. GFR is modulated via contraction or dilation of the afferent arteriole
Answers
Answer: i'm 90% sure its d
Explanation:
what genetic engineering reuqires pcr
Answers
In particular, the cloning of DNA fragments used to alter the genomes of microbes, animals, and plants, PCR is essential to the procedures involved in genetic engineering.
What purpose does PCR serve in genetic engineering?
The ultrasensitive PCR process allows for fast amplification of a particular DNA fragment. Because PCR produces billions of copies of a specific DNA fragment or gene, it is possible to detect and identify gene sequences using visual methodologies based on size and charge.
Why is PCR primarily used for this?
In biological and medical research facilities, PCR is a frequently utilized technology. It is used to determine whether a gene is present or absent in order to identify infections during the initial stages of processing DNA for sequencing.
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Acetaminophen is very deadly guys it can be found in allergy medicine btw so just make sure to read the drug facts and how many mg of it are in each tablet. Enjoy the points :)
Answers
Answer: ok
Explanation:
Which disease impairs the function of the skeletal system by making bones thinner and more porous?.
Answers
The nurse obtains a rectal temperature for an 11-month-old infant. which action will the nurse perform?
Answers
The nurse will obtains a rectal temperature for an 11-month-old infant. The nurse should apply water-soluble lubricant to the thermometer probe because when inserting the thermometer probes can cause damage to the rectum of an infant.
Although, damage to the rectum of an 11-month-old infant will be very painful, due to which he starts unstoppable crying.
Therefore, Applying a water-soluble lubricant will help to stretch the rectal opening easily, and inserting a thermometer probes to measure rectal temperature will be easy. The lubricants will also help to prevent damage or tear of the rectal canal and also help to prevent internal rectal bleeding in an 11-month-old infant.
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