A client has been diagnosed with functional incontinence. 1. Schedule toileting every 2 hours, interventions are most appropriate to care for this type of incontinence.
1. Schedule toileting every 2 hours.
2. Set up schedule of cues such as mealtimes, awakening, and bedtime.
3. Offer a toileting schedule, including reminders, alarms, or prompts.
4. Encourage the use of assistive devices, such as hand-held urinals or bedpans.
5. Encourage the use of toilet-sitting devices, such as raised toilet seats or toilet frames.
6. Encourage the use of continence products, such as pads or incontinence briefs.
7. Provide education on healthy bowel and bladder habits, such as the importance of proper hydration and avoiding constipation.
8. Encourage the use of pelvic floor muscle exercises to improve bladder and bowel control.
9. Consider the use of medications or other medical interventions, as appropriate, to manage incontinence.
10. Refer the individual to a continence nurse, physical therapist, or other healthcare professional for further evaluation and management.
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A client has been diagnosed with functional incontinence. which interventions are most appropriate to care for this type of incontinence? select all that apply.
1. Schedule toileting every 2 hours.
2. Modify clothing for easy removal.
3. Assess environment for obstacles.
4. Set up schedule of cues such as mealtimes, awakening, and bedtime.
Subjective: Here to follow up on her atrial fibrillation. No new problems. Feeling well. Medications are per medication sheet. These were reconstituted with the medications that she was discharged home on. Objective: Blood pressure is 110/64. Pulse is regular at 72. Neck is supple. Chest is clear. Cardiac normal sinus rhythm. Assessment: Atrial fibrillation, currently stable. Plan: 1. Prothrombin time to monitor long term use of anticoagulant. 2. Follow up with me in one month or sooner as needed if she has any other problems in the meantime. Will also check a creatinine and potassium today. What diagnosis code(s) are reported
Diagnosis code(s) are reported :
F03.90M25.511I11.9E11.9Diagnosis codeTo categorize and identify illnesses, disorders, symptoms, poisonings, negative effects of medications and chemicals, injuries, and other causes for patient contacts, diagnostic codes are employed in the medical field. Diagnostic coding is the process of converting textual descriptions of ailments, injuries, and diseases into codes that fall under a certain categorization.
In the clinical coding procedure for medical categorization, diagnostic codes are utilized with intervention codes. A medical classification expert such as a clinical coder or a health information manager assigns the diagnostic and intervention codes.
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Dr. Diwan wants Kay’s prescription to only be filled once. Which abbreviated instruction should Dr. Diwan include on her prescription?
NR
NPO
D.A.W.
e.m.p.
Answer:
NR
Definition-
NR-- no refill; this means that a prescription can be filled only once
Answer:
NR
Explanation:
<3
1IRB members must:
A. All be physicians who can assess subject safety.
B. Be affiliated with the institute or study site conducting the study.
C. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
D. Be investigators on the study.
2The site staff has prepared a postcard to be sent to past study participants telling them about a new study that they may have an interested in. This postcard does not have to be reviewed by the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4An IRB may perform an expedited review of a protocol or informed consent form change if the change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies:
A. Every 3 months.
B. Every 6 months.
C. Once a year.
D. Every 2 years.
1. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study., 2. False, 3. False, 4. True, 5. Every 6 months.
1. IRB members must have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate various aspects of a proposed study, including scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects. This ensures that the study is safe, ethical, and scientifically sound.
2. This statement is false. Any communication with past study participants about a new study must be reviewed and approved by the IRB to ensure that it is not coercive and provides accurate information.
3. This statement is false. A clinical investigator can be a member of the IRB, but they cannot participate in the IRB's review of their own study.
4. This statement is true. An expedited review may be performed for minor changes to a protocol or informed consent form that pose no more than minimal risk to study participants.
5. This statement is false. Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies at least once a year, but they may choose to review them more frequently if necessary.
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Match the typical characteristics of focus with the appropriate age group.
-
Infant
-
Child
-
Adolescent
-
Adult
-
Older Adult
A.
Present Focus
B.
Present to future
C.
Future focus
Answer:
Explanation:
Infant,Child,Older Adult- Present Focus
Adolescent-Present to Future
Adult-Future Focus
a nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for several postpartum women. which woman would the nurse recognize as having the greatest risk for developing a postpartum infection?
A nurse on the postpartum unit would recognize a woman with risk factors such as prolonged labor, multiple vaginal examinations, cesarean delivery, or a history of diabetes as having the greatest risk for developing a postpartum infection.
Postpartum infection, also known as puerperal infection, is a common complication following childbirth. Women with certain risk factors such as prolonged labor, multiple vaginal examinations, cesarean delivery, or a history of diabetes are at an increased risk of developing a postpartum infection. Prolonged labor and multiple vaginal examinations can lead to vaginal trauma and increase the risk of bacterial invasion. Cesarean delivery, which is a surgical procedure, can increase the risk of infection due to the introduction of bacteria into the uterus. Women with a history of diabetes are also at an increased risk of infection due to impaired immune function. A nurse on the postpartum unit would recognize these risk factors and closely monitor women for signs and symptoms of infection to prevent complications.
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a client has just been diagnosed with psoriasis and frequently has lesions around his right eye. what should the nurse teach the client about topical corticosteroid use on these lesions?
The nurse should taught to the client regarding the use of topical corticosteroids: Wash your hands before and after using the cream or ointment.
Do not use on broken or infected skin or in the eye. Apply sparingly to the affected area using a gentle, rubbing motion. Overuse of topical corticosteroids can cause thinning of the skin or other adverse effects. If you experience side effects such as itching, burning, or rash, stop using the cream or ointment and consult your doctor or nurse. Avoid long-term use of corticosteroids, as this can lead to more severe psoriasis symptoms or other health problems.
Psoriasis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the skin, scalp, and nails. The condition causes the body to produce excess skin cells, which then accumulate on the surface of the skin, resulting in scaly, itchy, and painful patches. Although psoriasis cannot be cured, there are treatments available to manage the symptoms. Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat mild to moderate psoriasis symptoms.
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Suppose you want to study the relationship between smoking and cancer. You assume that smoking is a cause of cancer. Studies have shown that there are many factors affecting this relationship, such as the number of cigarettes or the amount of tobacco smoked every day; the duration of smoking; the age of the smoker; dietary habits; and the amount of exercise undertaken by the individual. All of these factors may affect the extent to which smoking might cause cancer. These variables may either increase or decrease the magnitude of the relationship. Which statement is false
Answer: in the above example, cancer is an independent variable.
Explanation:
Based on the information given, we can infer that the dependent variable is cancer. Cancer is not the independent variable.
The extent to which an individual smokes is.an independent variable, duration of smoking, smoker's age can all be identified as the independent variable.
Cancer is not a independent variable here, in our study cancer is dependent on the amount of smoking by an individual.So, it is a dependent variable.
A 37year-old male diagnosed with hypertension has been treated with a low sodium diet and hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) 50 mg qd for the past two months. He denies Family history of cardiovascular disease. At today's follow-up visit his BP=150/90 and T=I00 F. Physical examination reveals no bruits, clear chest, no atrial gallop, edema and tenderness of the left ankle, and an intact neurological system. Which laboratory values will provide the most useful follow-up information
Answer and explanation:
Laboratory analyses that are useful to assess the cardiovascular risk by evaluating the oxidative stress:
- To measure the 8-isoprostane concentration in plasma. It is possible to determine its level by using the ELISA (Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay) assay.
- To measure the nitrite and nitrate concentrations, which may also be associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. The Griess reaction is specific for nitrite (and thereby it can be used to determine its level), while deproteinization methods enable to calculate the nitrite concentration.
You can read the following publication with detailed information about the methodologies above described:
P. S. Silva, V. Fontana, A.C. Palei, J.T. Sertório, C. Biagi, & J. E. Tanus-Santos (2011). Antihypertensive effects exerted by enalapril in mild to moderate hypertension are not associated with changes in the circulating levels of nitric oxide-related markers. European journal of clinical pharmacology, 67(4), 365-370.
a nursing instructor is observing a nursing student who is practicing the use of standard precautions in the nursing laboratory. which of the following observations by the instructor indicates a need for further teaching?
The instructor should observe that the nursing student washes their hands before glove removal after emptying a foley bag.
The nursing student should wash their hands before and after handling any patient, as well as before and after taking off gloves.
Standard precautions are used in healthcare facilities to prevent the spread of infection by bloodborne pathogens. The nursing laboratory is where nursing students practice using standard precautions. These precautions are the minimum level of infection prevention required when providing care to all clients, including those who are not known to be infected.
In addition to wearing gloves, there are several other steps to follow when practicing standard precautions, including:
Performing hand hygiene, which is the practice of washing your hands with soap and water or alcohol-based hand sanitizer to prevent the spread of infection.Wearing gloves and appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) based on the task, the level of exposure, and the type of isolation required, as well as removing gloves and other PPE appropriately.Handling and disposing of sharps, such as needles and blades, safely and correctly, and using appropriate medical devices to protect against injuries from sharps.Not wearing nail polish or fake nails as these harbor bacteria, and keeping nails short and clean.Maintaining a clean environment by following facility-specific procedures for cleaning and disinfection.Learn more about standard precautions at https://brainly.com/question/30277681
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When patients use ?, they sometimes need to take potassium supplements because these drugs prevent reabsorption of potassium. If patients are unable to produce their own ?, they probably have high blood sugar levels. ? can reduce the muscle contractions that cause some of the symptoms in patients with chronic gastrointestinal problems. A ? can be used to treat the high levels of stomach acid that can lead to chronic heartburn.
Answer:
1) Thiazide Drugs
2) Insulin
3) Antispasmodic Drugs
4) proton pump inhibitor
Right on Edg 2021
Explanation:
Answer:
1) Thiazide Drugs
2) Insulin
3) Antispasmodic Drugs
4) proton pump inhibitor
Right on Edg
Explanation:
Identify whether members of the following genus are always pathogens or an opportunistic pathogen: Escherichia pathogen opportunistic pathogen QUESTION 3 Identify whether members of the following genus are always pathogens or an opportunistic pathogen: Enterobacter pathogen opportunistic pathogen
a. For Escherichia genus: Members of the Escherichia genus can be considered opportunistic pathogens. Most Escherichia species, such as E. coli, are harmless and naturally occur in the human gastrointestinal tract. However, certain strains of E. coli can cause illnesses under specific circumstances, such as when they gain access to other parts of the body or when a person's immune system is weakened.
b. For Enterobacter genus: Members of the Enterobacter genus are also typically considered opportunistic pathogens. While these bacteria are commonly found in various environments, including soil, water, and the human gut, they usually do not cause diseases in healthy individuals. However, they can cause infections in individuals with compromised immune systems or when introduced to other parts of the body where they do not normally reside.
In summary, both Escherichia and Enterobacter are opportunistic pathogens, as they generally do not cause diseases in healthy individuals but can lead to infections under certain conditions or in immunocompromised individuals.
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which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the assessment of a child with a tentative diagnosis of leukemia
Leukemia is a broad term for cancers of the blood cells. The type of leukemia depends on the type of blood cell that becomes cancer and whether it grows quickly or slowly.
What is Lukemia?Leukemia occurs most often in adults older than 55, but it is also the most common cancer in children younger than 15. Explore the links on this page to learn more about the types of leukemia plus treatment, statistics, research, and clinical trials.
Cancer of the body's blood-forming tissues, such as the lymphatic system and bone marrow, is known as leukemia.
Usually, leukemia affects white blood cells. Your white blood cells are effective infection-fighting agents; they typically grow and divide in an organized manner as required by your body. But in leukemia patients, the bone marrow makes an overwhelming number of aberrant, dysfunctional white blood cells.
Therefore, Leukemia is a broad term for cancers of the blood cells. The type of leukemia depends on the type of blood cell that becomes cancer and whether it grows quickly or slowly.
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A persistent sore throat requires what type of reporting
Answer:A person who developed stomach Ulcers while taking a medication is blank. A side effect ... A persistent sore throat requires what type of reporting
Explanation:When not taking antibiotics, bacterial infections and the sore throats they cause may last anywhere from 7 to 10 days. In some cases, a sore throat from a bacterial infection may be due to a more serious illness. Be sure to follow up with your doctor if you have a sore throat lasting longer than 10 days.
Who do you feel were important in the development of medicine? Explain why.
Jarod finds that his facial skin growth has changed in shape and in color. he goes to his doctor, who refers him to a skin cancer specialist, also known as a:
dermatology medical assistant.
dermatologic oncologist.
dermatologist.
cosmetologist.
ans: b
An 8 kg child is prescribed azithromycin for community-acquired pneumonia. The prescription is for 10 mg/kg on day 1, followed by 5 mg/kg/dose once daily on days 2-5. Azithromycin is available as a 100 mg/5mL suspension. How many mLs will be required to complete the course?
The weight of the child is 8 kg, and the prescribed dosage of azithromycin is 10 mg/kg on day 1, followed by 5 mg/kg/day once daily on days 2-5. The total dose for day 1 would be:10 mg/kg × 8 kg = 80 mg. The dose for days 2-5 would be:5 mg/kg/day × 8 kg = 40 mg/day.
Therefore, the total dose for days 2-5 would be:40 mg/day × 4 days = 160 mg. The overall dose is:80 mg + 160 mg = 240 mg . One milliliter of the azithromycin suspension contains 100 mg of the drug. Therefore, to calculate how many mLs will be required to complete the course, divide the total dose by the concentration of the suspension:240 mg/100 mg per 5mL = 4.8 mL. The amount of Azithromycin suspension that will be required to complete the course is 4.8 mL.
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Hello, is there anyone here a pharmacy technician?
Answer:
my friends dad
Explanation:
the nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of insulin and about mixing regular and neutral protamine hagedorn (nph) insulin. which information is important to include in the teaching plan?
At the time the nurse was teaching a client about the self-administration of insulin and about mixing regular and neutral insulin protamine Hagedorn (NPH). Important information to include in the teaching plan is that when mixing insulin, the regular insulin is put into the syringe first.
What is NPH (Neutral Protamine Hagedorn)?Neutral Protamine Hagedorn (NPH), also known as isophane insulin, is used to improve blood sugar control in adults and children with diabetes. It is a medium-acting insulin that begins to work within 2-4 hours after injection. Insulin peaks in 4-12 hours and works for 12-18 hours.
NPH insulin is usually injected under the skin twice a day. The patient needs to rotate the site of their choice. Injecting insulin in the same area of the skin repeatedly without allowing the skin to heal can cause a reaction at the gathering place. Excessive use of the site can cause scarring and hardening of the skin, causing pain and decreased insulin absorption.
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This patient is a 73-year-old male nonsmoker with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He presented to this ED with shortness of breath and was found to have had an acute myocardial infarction of the anterior wall of his heart showing an ST elevation that had previously been left untreated. He developed several complications, including renal failure from a combination of cardiogenic shock and toxicity from the dye used for emergency catheterization of his heart.
What medicine do you need if someone has cancer
Answer:
Over-the-counter and prescription pain relievers, such as aspirin, acetaminophen (Tylenol, others) and ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB, others)
Weak opioid (derived from opium) medications, such as codeine
Strong opioid medications, such as morphine (Kadian, Ms Contin, others), oxycodone (Oxycontin, Roxicodone, others), hydromorphone (Dilaudid, Exalgo), fentanyl (Actiq, Fentora, others), methadone (Dolophine, Methadose) or oxymorphone (Opana)
Explanation:
Please mark me brailiest there is more thogh
It is important to understand that the distinction between Response and Recovery is often a fuzzy one, and that the end of one phase and the beginning of another depends on the Incident Commander declaring it to be so.Explain why the Recovery phase can be considered as a "window of opportunity" for Risk Reduction, and describe some kinds of Risk Reduction measures that are easier to achieve during Recovery than at other times (and WHY are they easier?).
During the recovery phase, there is an opportunity to implement risk reduction measures. This phase is often considered a "window of opportunity" because it allows for a focused effort on reducing future risks.
Some kinds of risk reduction measures that are easier to achieve during the recovery phase include:
1. Infrastructure improvements: Repairing or upgrading damaged infrastructure can incorporate risk reduction measures. For example, reinforcing buildings or bridges can make them more resilient to future incidents.
2. Policy changes: The recovery phase provides an opportunity to review and update policies and regulations. This can include implementing stricter building codes or zoning regulations to mitigate future risks.
3. Community engagement and education: During recovery, there is often increased community involvement. This presents a chance to educate and raise awareness about potential risks. By educating residents about disaster preparedness and mitigation strategies, the community becomes more resilient.
4. Enhanced emergency response plans: The recovery phase allows for the evaluation and improvement of emergency response plans. This includes identifying weaknesses and incorporating risk reduction strategies to ensure a more effective response in the future.
These risk reduction measures are easier to achieve during the recovery phase because there is a heightened awareness of the impact of the incident and a collective effort to prevent similar events from occurring. Additionally, there is often increased funding and resources available for implementing these measures.
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Diagnosis of fungal skin diseases is made from their clinical appearance and by microscopic examination of______preparations of skin flakes or hair.
Diagnosis of fungal skin diseases is made by microscopic examination of direct preparations of skin flakes or hair.
Skin flakes or hair samples from the affected area are collected and placed on a glass slide with a drop of potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution.
The KOH solution dissolves the keratin in the skin and hair cells, making the fungal elements easier to spot under the microscope. The structures of fungal skin infections, such as hyphae, spores, and yeast cells, can be seen under a microscope.
This method enables for the rapid diagnosis and identification of the fungal infection's causative agent, allowing the health care professional to prescribe the proper medication.
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A hospital pharmacy technician should receive hazardous drug training Annually
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
A nurse is counselled for questioning a physician's order that made the physician mad. Which document best explains why the nurse was correct to question a physician's order that the nurse believed could be harmful to a patient
Answer:
a
Explanation:
Caleb is working as pharmacy technician. He has decided that he wants to continue with his education because he wants to become a pharmacist. Which statement BEST describes Caleb's situation?
a. Caleb has some education but needs to pass the certification exam.
b. Caleb has a license and is wanting to obtain a certificate.
c. Caleb has a certificate and is wanting to obtain a license.
d. Caleb has passed one PTCE but still needs to pass the other.
Answer:
C. Caleb has a certificate and is wanting to obtain a license.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
The nurse is caring for a client with incontinence who has been neglected in supine position at home for more than a week. Which priority nursing diagnosis will the nurse select?risk for disuse syndromeimpaired transfer abilityrisk for impaired skin integrityimpaired physical mobility
The priority nursing diagnosis in this case would be risk for impaired skin integrity.
The scenario described involves a client who has been neglected in a supine position at home for more than a week and has developed incontinence. Prolonged pressure on the skin due to immobility can cause tissue damage and lead to pressure ulcers, which can be difficult to treat and can cause significant pain and discomfort for the client.
The priority nursing diagnosis in this case would therefore be risk for impaired skin integrity. The nurse would need to assess the client's skin for signs of damage, such as redness, swelling, or blisters, and take measures to prevent further damage. This might include repositioning the client frequently to relieve pressure on vulnerable areas, using pressure-relieving devices such as specialized mattresses or cushions, and providing meticulous skin care.
The other nursing diagnoses listed are also relevant to the client's situation and may need to be addressed, but the risk of impaired skin integrity is the most immediate concern. If the client's skin becomes severely damaged, it could lead to infection, sepsis, or other complications that could be life-threatening.
Therefore, the nurse must prioritize this diagnosis and take prompt action to prevent or manage any skin damage.
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Writing prompt: Write an argumentative essay for or against maintaining traditional coming-of-age ceremonies, such as a bar mitzvah or a quince
Answer:
a quince is a party for when a mexican girl is turning fifteen and her parents are telling her that she is finally responsible of taking care of herself. Americans celebrate it even though it is a mexican tradition and it should not be celebrated. it should only be celebrated by mexicans ONLY.
Explanation:
have a nice day!
why bromoacetic acid is added slowly in the synthesis of 5 fluorouracil acetic acid?
This reduces the possibility of temperature spikes and ensures that the reaction proceeds in a regulated manner.
What is bromoacetic acid?The chemical compound bromoacetic acid, sometimes referred to as bromoacetate, has the molecular formula CH2BrCOOH. It is a white liquid with a strong, unpleasant smell that is soluble in water.
Since the reaction between the bromoacetic acid and 5-fluorouracil is highly exothermic, bromoacetic acid is introduced gradually throughout the manufacture of 5-fluorouracil (5-FU). The temperature may rise quickly if the bromoacetic acid is added too quickly, which could result in uncontrollable reactions and unintended side effects.
Bromoacetic acid is added gradually, which reduces the possibility of temperature spikes and ensures that the reaction proceeds in a regulated manner. This allows the heat produced during the reaction to be dispersed gradually. This lowers the quantity of undesirable byproducts while increasing the output of the desired product, 5-fluorouracil acetic acid.
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Which of the following is found in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes?
a) introns
b) repressors
c) operons
The correct answer is (a) introns, which is found in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes.Explanation:Prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes are significantly different in structure, organization, and regulation. The nucleoid region, a plasmid, and an operon are the three main components of prokaryotic genes.
In contrast, eukaryotic genes have a distinct nucleus containing DNA molecules as chromosomes. Eukaryotic genes have introns and exons, as well as promoters and enhancers to control gene expression.Operons are a group of genes that operate together and are regulated by a single promoter in prokaryotic cells.
In contrast, eukaryotic genes, which have complex chromatin arrangements, are regulated by transcription factors and enhancers that work together to control gene expression.Introns, on the other hand, are segments of DNA that are not expressed in protein synthesis and are unique to eukaryotic genes.
They must be removed via RNA splicing in order for the gene to be expressed. As a result, introns are found in eukaryotic genes but not in prokaryotic genes. Therefore, the correct option is (a) introns.
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78-year old woman with a history of hypertension, aortic thoracic graft, and esophageal reflux disease complained of fever (100 o ) and weakness. She had been treated 3 weeks before at the hospital for a urinary tract infection. She was admitted to the hospital for a diagnostic workup and transfusion. Her laboratory results are listed below:
Na+ 129 mmol/L Hct 25.6%
K+ 3.7 mmol/L Hgb 8.5 g/dL
Cl- 97 mmol/L WBC 9,700
CO2 19 mmol/L
BUN 52 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.2 mg/dL
Urine culture was positive for Citrobacter.
Urinalysis results are listed:
Color Hazy/yellow
Specific gravity 1.015
pH 5
Blood Large
Protein 2
Glucose Negative
Ketones Negative
Nitrates Negative
RBC >25
WBC 1–4
Casts Granular, 1–4
The patient’s renal function continued to decline, and she was put on hemodialysis. A renal biopsy was performed that showed end-stage crescentic glomerulonephritis. Two days later, the patient sustained a perforated duodenal ulcer, which required surgery and blood transfusion. Subsequently, she developed coagulopathy and liver failure. Her condition continued to deteriorate in the next few days, and she died following removal of life support.
1. Looking at the urinalysis, what is the significance of the results of 2+ protein and >25 RBCs?
2. What is the most likely cause of glomerulonephritis?
3. Why was the patient put on hemodialysis?