a child weighing 29.92 pounds (lbs) is prescribed an oral suspension of acetaminophen 10 mg/kg for pain and pyrexia. the acetaminophen is supplied as 160mg/5ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? round the answer to the nearest one tenth of a milliliter.

Answers

Answer 1

As the units of a solid are grammes, a percentage would indicate g of active drug per 100g of the entire dose form. For instance, hydrocortisone 1% cream is a typical OTC product. This indicates that each 100 grammes of cream contains 1 gramme of hydrocortisone.

Why is acetaminophen also known as paracetamol?

As a result, it qualifies as an antipyretic—something that lowers fevers. Several medications that treat the flu and colds include it. The chemical compounds N-acetyl-para-aminophenol and para-acetyl-aminophenol are the source of the terms acetaminophen and paracetamol, respectively.

A drug called acetaminophen can alleviate mild to moderate discomfort and lower a temperature. While using this drug, abide by the instructions on the label. There are many concentrations available.

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Related Questions

Which laboratory test is conducted during the initial prenatal visit? one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The test conducted during the initial prenatal visit is: (3) Cervical culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Prenatal visit is the visit to the doctor or medical professional before giving birth to the child or the gestation period. Certain tests are performed at every visit and a regular check of the vitals of the body is kept. The visits are conducted in regular intervals of time as suggested by the doctor.

Cervical culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae is performed during the initials visits of pregnancy because the infection can be transferred from the mother to the child. Also, the infection is known to the reason for pre-mature birth or other life-threatening conditions.

The question is incomplete, the complete question is:

Which laboratory test is conducted during the initial prenatal visit? One, some, or all responses may be correct.

1-hour glucose tolerance test3-hour glucose tolerance testCervical culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeaeChest x-ray for a positive tuberculosis skin test (TST)Group beta streptococcus (GBS) genital cultures.

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witch of the fallowing is an advantige of synthetic fiber rope

Answers

Answer:

It's safer, lighter, faster and easier.

Explanation:

What could you do to facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara?

Answers

Assess your body language. Have your body at the same level as theirs. Make your interactions easier for them. Show them the proper respect. Have patience. Monitor your mechanics. Provide simple written instructions when necessary; use graphics where possible. Give your patients ample time to respond or ask questions.

Answer:

Explanation:

I don’t get any answer

explain the importance of nonverbal communication when communicating with a person who is confused and agitated?​

Answers

Answer: try and calm them down and explain to them what it is you are working on.

Explanation:

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what are four examples elderly people living in facility care can benefit from person center care

Answers

Four examples of how you think elderly people living in care facilities can benefit from culture change are {core values, respect and dignity self-determination}

a sports magazine reports that the mean number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at a certain sporting event is equal to 150. a random sample of 50 hot dog vendors was selected, and the mean number of hot dogs sold by the vendors at the sporting event was 140. for samples of size 50, which of the following is true about the sampling distribution of the sample mean number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at the sporting event?

Answers

Answer:

The sampling distribution of the sample means the number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at the sporting event is approximately average, with a mean of 150 and a standard deviation of (standard deviation of the population/square root of sample size). The sample means of 140 falls within this normal distribution, and since the sample size is 50, it is likely that the sample mean is not equal to the population means.

Explanation:

Phlebotomists What is the primary duty?

Answers

The primary duty is to collect blood specimens. Hope this helped!
To draw and collect blood from patients for test results

***********PLEASE HELP ASAP 25POINTS***********
As you are completing your assigned tasks, you realize you will not be able to finish them all before the end of your shift. What should you do?

Answers

Answer:

do what you can do, bcuz you already know u can't finish them all

Question 37 Marks: 1 A concentration of x-ray machines in one building will not affect scatter radiation.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

Answers

The given statement " A concentration of x-ray machines in one building will not affect scatter radiation." is False because Scatter radiation occurs when primary x-ray beams interact different objects in the path.

A concentration of x-ray machines in one building can affect scatter radiation. Scatter radiation occurs when primary x-ray beams interact with the patient's body and other objects in the path of the beam, causing the radiation to scatter in different directions.

This scattered radiation can cause exposure to people in the vicinity of the x-ray machines, including other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors. When multiple x-ray machines are concentrated in one building, the potential for scatter radiation exposure can be increased, especially if proper shielding and safety measures are not in place.

Therefore, it is essential to take appropriate precautions and follow safety guidelines to minimize the risk of scatter radiation exposure in settings where multiple x-ray machines are used.

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During its first year of operations, Forrest Company paid $30,000 for direct materials and $50,000 in wages for production workers. Lease payments, utility costs, and depreciation on factory equipment totaled $15,000. General, selling, and administrative expenses were $20,000. The average cost to produce one unit was $5.00. How many units were produced during the period

Answers

To find the number of units produced during the period, we need to divide the total production costs by the average cost per unit.

Total production costs include direct materials, wages for production workers, lease payments, utility costs, and depreciation on factory equipment. General, selling, and administrative expenses are not included in the production costs.

Total production costs = Direct materials + Wages for production workers + Lease payments + Utility costs + Depreciation on factory equipment

= $30,000 + $50,000 + $15,000 + $0 + $0

= $95,000

Average cost per unit = $5.00

Number of units produced = Total production costs / Average cost per unit

= $95,000 / $5.00

= 19,000 units

Therefore, 19,000 units were produced during the period.

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after administering nitroglycerin to a patient with chest discomfort, it is most important for you to:

Answers

After administering nitroglycerin to a patient with chest discomfort, it is most important to monitor the patient's blood pressure and assess their response to the medication.

Nitroglycerin is a commonly used medication for the treatment of chest discomfort, particularly in cases of angina or suspected myocardial infarction (heart attack).

It works by relaxing the blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart.

Following the administration of nitroglycerin, the nurse or healthcare provider should prioritize monitoring the patient's blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can cause a drop in blood pressure, resulting in hypotension.

Therefore, it is crucial to assess the patient's blood pressure regularly to ensure that it remains within an acceptable range.

If the blood pressure drops excessively, appropriate interventions should be taken to manage the hypotension, such as adjusting the dosage of nitroglycerin or administering intravenous fluids.

Additionally, it is important to closely observe the patient for any signs of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Nitroglycerin should alleviate chest discomfort and improve the patient's condition.

If the symptoms persist or worsen after the administration of nitroglycerin, further evaluation and additional interventions may be necessary to address the underlying cause of the chest discomfort.

Overall, close monitoring of blood pressure and assessment of the patient's response to nitroglycerin are crucial steps in the management of chest discomfort and ensuring the patient's safety and well-being.

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Which of the following is true of the newborn states of arousal?

Answers

Answer:

The states of arousal describe the cycle of sleeping and alertness.

Explanation:

Which respiratory treatment uses medication suspended within a mist through a mask or nebulizer?.

Answers

Answer:

Budesonide

Explanation:

Budesonide comes as a powder to inhale by mouth using an inhaler and as a suspension to inhale by mouth using a special jet nebulizer (a machine that turns medication into a mist that can be inhaled). Budesonide powder for oral inhalation is usually inhaled twice a day.

How can we take care of patient with myocardial infraction (MI)?

Answers

Answer:

I suggest that aspirin 150–300 mg should be given to patients with suspected acute myocardial infarction as soon as possible following the event. The tablet should be chewed or dispersed in water to achieve a quick onset of its anti-platelet action

Explanation:

Hope this helped:)

An injury to the surface of the skin caused by trauma, such as scratching or abrasions is called a(an)

Answers

Answer:

ABRASION.  Scraping, or rubbing away of a surface, such. as skin, by friction. Abrasion may be the result of trauma, such as a skinned.

Explanation:

What does HDA means? (I think that the abreviation it´s in spanish)

Answers

Answer:

HDA

Acronym Definition

HDA High Definition Audio

HDA Help Desk Analyst

HDA Health Development Agency (UK NHS)

HDA Hispanic Dental Association

Explanation:

either one of these have a nice day!

Answer:

Explanation:

HDA High Definition Audio

HDA Help Desk Analyst

HDA Health Development Agency (UK NHS)

HDA Hispanic Dental Association

A nurse is caring for a group of adult clients on an acute care nursing unit. Which clients does the nurse recognize as the most likely candidates for total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? Select all that apply.
A client with pancreatitis
A client with severe sepsis
A client with renal calculi
A client who has undergone repair of a hiatal hernia
A client with a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis

Answers

A client with pancreatitis and a client with severe sepsis are recognized by the nurse as the most likely candidates for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).

Option 1 & 2 are correct.

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a form of specialized nutrition provided intravenously to individuals who cannot meet their nutritional needs through oral or enteral routes. The clients most likely to be candidates for TPN in the given options are those with pancreatitis and severe sepsis.

Pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas that can impair the production and secretion of digestive enzymes. TPN may be indicated in severe cases of pancreatitis to rest the pancreas and provide the necessary nutrients directly into the bloodstream.

Severe sepsis is a systemic infection that can cause significant metabolic disturbances and compromise nutritional status. TPN may be necessary in these cases to provide adequate nutrition and support the body's immune response.

Therefore, the correct options are 1 & 2.

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All pandemics are caused by infectious virus or bacteria that cross from animals to humansa. Trueb. False

Answers

Answer:

False, not all viruses are zoonotic diseases. Some originate within the human body such as influenza type a

Explanation:

Brainlyest to the correct answer


A nursing assistant is preparing to transport a patient with a known contagious disease. The nursing assistant asks the patient to wear PPE, including a mask for the trip, and to observe proper respiratory hygiene. What disease does the patient most likely have?
1. Syphillis
2. Tuberculosis
3. Strep Throat
4. Warts

Answers

Answer:

2. Tuberculosis

Explanation:

Out of all these diseases, tuberculosis is the only one that is both contagious and infects the lungs. This is the disease that you would need to use PPE and observe proper respiratory hygiene for.

Skeletal muscles are

Found in organs

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

Answer: true
True
True

The Important Message from Medicare should be delivered to which kind of
Medicare patients?

Answers

Answer:

Hospitals

Explanation:

Hospitals are required to deliver the Important Message from Medicare (IM), formerly CMS-R-193 and now CMS-10065, to all Medicare beneficiaries (Original Medicare beneficiaries and Medicare Advantage plan enrollees) who are hospital inpatients

I need help on my ethical dilemma paper about comfort care in terminally ill patients. Can someone help me?

Answers

Emegssj KKK elemental P tap in a MOADA dad teleport there D::&:8:&:733

the nurse is caring for a client with angina. if wanting to reduce the frank–starling effect on myocardial oxygen consumption, what type of medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed?

Answers

The Frank-Starling effect refers to the relationship between the end-diastolic volume of the heart and the amount of blood pumped by the heart during each beat. When the end-diastolic volume increases, so does the amount of blood pumped by the heart, which can increase myocardial oxygen consumption.

In a patient with angina, reducing the Frank-Starling effect can help to reduce myocardial oxygen demand and relieve symptoms. To achieve this, the nurse would expect the doctor to prescribe a class of medications called beta blockers.

Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of the hormone adrenaline, which increases heart rate and contractility. By reducing heart rate and contractility, beta blockers can reduce myocardial oxygen demand and relieve symptoms of angina. In addition, beta blockers can also help to improve blood flow to the heart by dilating blood vessels, which can help to reduce the risk of future angina attacks.

It's important to note that while beta blockers can be effective in reducing the symptoms of angina, they may not be suitable for all patients, as they can interact with other medications and have side effects. The nurse would monitor the patient for any adverse effects and report them to the physician, who would then determine if any adjustments to the medication regimen are necessary.

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Enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the interior of the esophagus _______ ______

Answers

Enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the interior of the esophagus are known as esophageal varices.

Esophageal varices are abnormal, enlarged, and swollen veins that develop in the lower part of the esophagus. These varices are commonly associated with liver disease, specifically cirrhosis, which leads to increased pressure in the portal vein system. The portal vein carries blood from the intestines and other abdominal organs to the liver.

When liver function is compromised, blood flow through the liver is obstructed, causing increased pressure in the portal vein. As a result, blood finds alternative pathways to return to the heart, leading to the formation of collateral vessels, including esophageal varices.

Esophageal varices are a significant concern due to their tendency to rupture and cause severe bleeding. The risk of rupture increases as the varices enlarge and the pressure within them rises. Ruptured esophageal varices can result in life-threatening hemorrhage, requiring immediate medical intervention.

Monitoring and managing esophageal varices are crucial in patients with liver disease to prevent complications. Treatment may involve medications to reduce portal vein pressure, endoscopic procedures to identify and treat varices, or in severe cases, surgical intervention or liver transplantation.

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A patient weighing 66 lbs. is prescribed Augmentin 30 mg/kg/day by mouth in divided doses every 8 hours. How many mg of the medication should the patient receive for each dose?

Answers

Answer:

A patient who weighs 66 pounds, about 30 kg, should receive a 30 mg dose of Augmentin, according to the recommended dose.

Explanation:

Augmentin is an antibiotic composed of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, used in the treatment of respiratory infections.

If a patient is prescribed Augmentin, at a rate of 30 mg/kg/day orally every 8 hours:

Recommended dose: 30 mg/kg/day Interval between doses: 8 hours (TID) Patient weight: 66 pounds = 29.94 Kg ≈ 30 Kg

The patient's weight must be converted from lbs to Kg, which is done through the equivalence of measurements, where 1 lb = 0.453592 Kg.

Weight (Kg) = 66 X 0.453592 = 29.937072 ≈ 30 Kg

To calculate the dose of the drug, the dose per day should be multiplied by the patient's weight, and then divided by the three recommended doses (c/8h):

Augmentin dose = (30 mg X 30 mg/day) / 3 Augmentin Dose = 900 mg/3 Augmentin dose = 300 mg

The patient should receive 300 mg per dose of Augmentin during his treatment.

8. An advanced practice registered nurse in an outpatient clinic could delegate which of the following tasks to an unlicensed clinical staff member?

Answers

Answer:

Delegatee Responsibilities

Everyone is responsible for the well-being of patients. While the nurse is ultimately accountable for the overall care provided to a patient, the delegatee shares the responsibility for the patient and is fully responsible for the delegated activity, skill or procedure

The newly recruited unlicensed assistance personnel's knowledge and performance must be evaluated by the registered nurse, cleansing and dressing a minor leg wound in accordance with step-by-step instructions, hence option D is correct.

Who is an unlicensed clinical staff member?

This medical practitioner treats patients while also reviewing the skills and output of recently hired unlicensed assistance staff before assigning them a job.

This is done to stop inexperienced staff from making mistakes by properly supervising them.

Perioperative nursing is a branch of nursing that focuses on caring for patients undergoing surgery or other invasive procedures. Perioperative nurses work closely with doctors, anesthesiologists, nurse anesthetists, surgical technicians, and nurse practitioners.

The patient's physical, psychological, and social state must be assessed, and pre-op nurses are in charge of preparing the patient for surgery and performing nursing interventions.

Therefore, cleansing and dressing a minor leg wound in accordance with step-by-step instructions, hence option D is correct.

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The given question is incomplete, so the complete question is,

An advanced practice registered nurse in an outpatient clinic could delegate which of the following tasks to an unlicensed clinical staff member?

A. Administering intramuscular (IM) and subcutaneous (SQ) injections other than insulin.

B. Calling in prescription refills of a PRN pain medication for which no refills have been authorized.

C. Reviewing routine laboratory results and calling the patient to tell the patient what the results mean.

D. Cleansing and dressing a minor leg wound in accordance with step-by-step instructions.

A nurse is caring for a child who has sickle cell disease: what nursing interventions should the nurse provide?

Answers

Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder where the patient's red blood cells are shaped like sickles or crescent moons. These sickle-shaped cells can stick together, causing blockages in small blood vessels, leading to organ damage and extreme pain.

Here are some nursing interventions that a nurse should provide to a child with sickle cell disease:

1. Pain management: Pain is the most common symptom of sickle cell disease, and the pain can be severe. A nurse should assess the child's pain and provide appropriate pain relief measures, such as administering analgesics, positioning the child comfortably, and providing heat or cold therapy.

2. Fluid therapy: Patients with sickle cell disease are at risk for dehydration, which can trigger a crisis. A nurse should encourage the child to drink fluids frequently and administer intravenous fluids if necessary.

3. Oxygen therapy: In severe cases of sickle cell disease, the patient may require oxygen therapy to help relieve symptoms and prevent organ damage. A nurse should monitor the child's oxygen saturation levels and administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.

4. Infection prevention: Patients with sickle cell disease are at risk for infections due to a weakened immune system. A nurse should ensure that the child's immunizations are up to date, and follow proper infection prevention protocols, such as hand hygiene and isolation precautions.

5. Education: Education is a vital component of caring for a child with sickle cell disease. A nurse should educate the child and their family about the disease, its symptoms, and triggers, as well as proper self-care measures, such as drinking fluids and avoiding activities that can trigger a crisis.

In conclusion, sickle cell disease is a lifelong condition that requires comprehensive nursing care. Nurses should provide pain management, fluid therapy, oxygen therapy, infection prevention, and education to ensure the best possible outcomes for children with sickle cell disease.

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a nurse is providing a patient with instructions about picc removal. the nurse knows the patient understood the post-procedure instructions when he makes which of the following statements?

Answers

"Inhale deeply and hold it." A patient is receiving instructions from a nurse on how to remove a PICC. "You can remove the catheter, but I have to stay in bed for 30 minutes afterward."

What information is required before removing a PICC line?

To avoid infection and migratory infection, a PICC line should always be covered with a clean, tight dressing. Only a physician's prescription is required to remove a PICC line. When removing a PICC line, use slow, intermittent traction.

How is a PICC line removed by a nurse?

When the catheter is removed, place the sterile gauze over the insertion site while holding the hub and main catheter in the other hand. 

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a subject in a clinical research trial experiences a serious, a subject in a clinical research trial experiences a serious, unanticipated adverse drug experience. how should the investigator proceed, with respect to the irb, after the discovery of the adverse event occurrence? adverse drug experience. how should the investigator proceed, with respect to the irb, after the discovery of the adverse event occurrence?

Answers

Report the adverse drug experience in a timely manner, in keeping with the IRB's policies and procedures, using the forms or the mechanism provided by the IRB.

What is an adverse drug experience?

An Adverse Drug Experience is any adverse reaction that occurs following the use of a drug product. ADEs can be mild (itching, sneezing) to severe (death). ADEs include complaints of ineffectiveness, product defects and human safety associated with the handling of animal drug products.

Adverse drug reactions are classified into six types (with mnemonics): dose-related (Augmented), non-dose-related (Bizarre), dose-related and time-related (Chronic), time-related (Delayed), withdrawal (End of use), and failure of therapy (Failure).

Examples of such adverse drug reactions include rashes, jaundice, anemia, a decrease in the white blood cell count, kidney damage, and nerve injury that may impair vision or hearing. These reactions tend to be more serious but typically occur in a very small number of people.

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A 76-year-old woman with emphysema presents with respiratory distress that has worsened progressively over the past 2 days. She is breathing through pursed lips and has a prolonged expiratory phase and an oxygen saturation of 76%. She is on home oxygen at 2 L/min. Your initial action should be to:

Answers

Your initial action should be to place her in a position that ease or aid her breathing.
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