a car cruising at 30 m/s (about 68 mph). if the kinetic friction coefficient between the tires and the road is 0.70 (when the road is dry), when the driver hits the brake, how far (approximately) will the car slide before it comes to a full stop? (g

Based on the 95% confidence interval, the conclusion would be that the whale-watching company has a 95% chance of seeing between -.507 and 1.307 whales on any given day.

The test was to find out how many whales could be seen on a given day and this was tested at a 95% significance level.

The 95% confidence interval was shown to be (-0.507, 1.307). This means that there is a 95% chance that between -0.507 and 1.307 whales will be seen on a given day.

Find out more on confidence intervals at https://brainly.com/question/26267323.

Answer: As the variable resistance increases its resistance, the current which flow through the lamp will decrease and therefore its brightness decreases. ... If the resistors are very large, they have no impact and the lamps will be the same brightness.

Explanation:

Answer:

The intensity or brightness of the bulb increases as more dry cell is added in the circuit.

Explanation:

Hope it helps :)

The length of the shortest pipe closed on one end and open at the other end that will have a fundamental frequency of 0.060 kHz on a day when the speed of sound is 340 m/s is approximately 283.3 cm.

This can be determined using the formula:

frequency = (n x speed of sound) / (2 x length)

where: n = 1 (fundamental frequency)

frequency = 0.060 kHz (60 Hz)

speed of sound = 340 m/s.

Plugging these values into the formula gives:

0.060 x 10³ Hz = (1 x 340 m/s) / (2 x length)

0.06 x 10³ Hz = 170 m/s / length

0.06 x 10³ Hz x length = 170 m/s

Dividing both sides by 0.06 x 10³ Hz:

length = 170 m/s / (0.06 x 10³ Hz)

length = 283.3 cm (rounded to one decimal place)

Therefore, the length of the shortest pipe closed on one end and open at the other end that will have a fundamental frequency of 0.060 kHz on a day when the speed of sound is 340 m/s is approximately 283.3 cm.

For more such questions on  frequency visit:

https://brainly.com/question/254161

#SPJ8

Answer:

1. potential 2. kinetic 3. potential 4. kinetic 5. kinetic 6. kinetic 7. kinetic 8. kinetic. potential

Answer:

Increase height

Increase mass

Answer:

3,00,000

Explanation:

because 1 m =100m so, 3000x100=300000

The motor needs to deliver approximately 176.39 kW of power to lift the elevator at an average speed of 18 m/s.

To calculate the power required by the motor, we need to know the mass of the elevator and the height it needs to travel. Let's assume a mass of 1000 kg and a height of 500 meters.

The work done by the motor to lift the elevator is given by:

work = force x distance

The force required to lift the elevator is equal to its weight, which is given by:

force = mass x gravity

where gravity is approximately \(9.81 m/s^2.\)

So, the force required to lift the elevator is:

force = 1000 kg x 9.81 \(m/s^2\)= 9810 N

The distance the elevator needs to travel is 500 meters.

The work done by the motor is:

work = force x distance = 9810 N x 500 m = 4,905,000 J

The power required by the motor is given by:

power = work / time

To find the time, we can use the average speed of the elevator and the distance traveled:

time = distance / speed = 500 m / 18 m/s = 27.78 s

So, the power required by the motor is:

power = 4,905,000 J / 27.78 s = 176,390 W or 176.39 kW

To know more about power required refer here

https://brainly.com/question/30813746#

#SPJ11

Answer:

F=GMm/r²

G=6.67x10^-11

F= 6.67x10^-11 x 55 x 55/(0.25)²

=3.228 x 10^-6N

The gravitational force of attraction between the two people is 3.23 × 10⁻⁶ N

From Newton's law of universal gravitation formula, we have that

\(F = G\frac{m_{1}m_{2} }{r^{2} }\)

Where F is the gravitational force

G is the gravitational constant (G = 6.67408 × 10⁻¹¹ m³.kg⁻¹.s⁻²)

m₁ is the mass of object 1

m₂ is the mass of object 2

and r is the distance between the centers of the masses

From the question

m₁ = 55 kg

m₂ = 55 kg

r = 0.25 m

Putting the parameters into the formula, we get

\(F = 6.67408 \times 10^{-11} \times \frac{55 \times 55}{0.25^{2} }\)

∴ F = 3.23 × 10⁻⁶ N

Hence, the gravitational force of attraction between the two people is 3.23 × 10⁻⁶ N

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/20856669

Answer:

32.5 miles

Explanation:

65/2=32.5

Hope this helps!

Answer:

32.5

Explanation:

If the pressure in the pipe is 8940 n/m° and in the constricted section is 6705 n/m,  the rate at which oil is flowing through the pipe is 2.74 m^3/s.

The volume flow rate (Q) can be expressed as:

Q = Av

We can use the continuity equation to relate the velocities at the two different cross-sectional areas:

A1v1 = A2v2

Where:A1 and A2 are the cross-sectional areas at the two different points in the pipe

v1 and v2 are the fluid velocities at the two different points in the pipe

We can rearrange this equation to solve for v1 in terms of v2:

v1 = (A2/A1) * v2

Now we can use Bernoulli's equation to relate the pressure and velocity at the two different points in the pipe:

P1 + (1/2)ρv1^2 = P2 + (1/2)ρv2^2

We can rearrange this equation to solve for v2:

v2 = sqrt(2(P1 - P2) / ρ + v1^2)

Now we can plug in the given values to find v2:

v1 = ?

A1 = (π/4)(0.945 m)^2 = 0.664 m^2

A2 = (π/4)(0.567 m)^2 = 0.100 m^2

ρ = 821 kg/m^3

P1 = 8940 N/m^2

P2 = 6705 N/m^2

v2 = sqrt(2(8940 - 6705) / 821 + ((0.100/0.664) * v1)^2)

We can simplify this equation by assuming that the velocity at the wider section of the pipe (v1) is much smaller than the velocity at the constriction (v2), due to the principle of continuity. Therefore, we can neglect the second term in the equation, giving:

v2 = sqrt(2(8940 - 6705) / 821) = 11.98 m/s

Now we can use the continuity equation to find the volume flow rate:

Q = A1v1 = A2v2 = (π/4)(0.945 m)^2 * 11.98 m/s =2.74 m^3/s

Therefore, the rate at which oil is flowing through the pipe is 2.74 m^3/s.

For such more questions on rate of the flow:

brainly.com/question/29733265

#SPJ11

Answer:

Yes the correct answer is B

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Probably the most famous force of all is gravity. We humans on earth think of gravity as an apple hitting Isaac Newton on the head. Gravity means that stuff falls down. But this is only our experience of gravity. In truth, just as the earth pulls the apple towards it due to a gravitational force, the apple pulls the earth as well. The thing is, the earth is just so massive that it overwhelms all the gravity interactions of every other object on the planet. Every object with mass exerts a gravitational force on every other object. And there is a formula for calculating the strengths of these forces, as depicted in the diagram below:

Diagram of gravitational forces between two spheres

Diagram of gravitational forces between two spheres

Let’s examine this formula a bit more closely.

F refers to the gravitational force, the vector we ultimately want to compute and pass into our applyForce() function.

G is the universal gravitational constant, which in our world equals 6.67428 x 10^-11 meters cubed per kilogram per second squared. This is a pretty important number if your name is Isaac Newton or Albert Einstein. It’s not an important number if you are a ProcessingJS programmer. Again, it’s a constant that we can use to make the forces in our world weaker or stronger. Just making it equal to one and ignoring it isn’t such a terrible choice either.

m_1m  

1

​  

m, start subscript, 1, end subscript and m_2m  

2

​  

m, start subscript, 2, end subscript are the masses of objects 1 and 2. As we saw with Newton’s second law (\vec{F} = M\vec{A}  

F

=M  

A

F, with, vector, on top, equals, M, A, with, vector, on top), mass is also something we could choose to ignore. After all, shapes drawn on the screen don’t actually have a physical mass. However, if we keep these values, we can create more interesting simulations in which “bigger” objects exert a stronger gravitational force than smaller ones.

\hat{r}  

r

^

r, with, hat, on top refers to the unit vector pointing from object 1 to object 2. As we’ll see in a moment, we can compute this direction vector by subtracting the location of one object from the other.

r^2r  

2

r, squared refers to the distance between the two objects squared. Let’s take a moment to think about this a bit more. With everything on the top of the formula—G, m_1m  

1

​  

m, start subscript, 1, end subscript, m_2m  

2

​  

m, start subscript, 2, end subscript—the bigger its value, the stronger the force. Big mass, big force. Big G, big force. Now, when we divide by something, we have the opposite. The strength of the force is inversely proportional to the distance squared. The farther away an object is, the weaker the force; the closer, the stronger.

Hopefully by now the formula makes some sense to us. We’ve looked at a diagram and dissected the individual components of the formula. Now it’s time to figure out how we translate the math into ProcessingJS code. Let’s make the following assumptions.

We have two objects, and:

Each object has a PVector location: location1 and location2.

Each object has a numeric mass: mass1 and mass2.

There is a numeric variable G for the universal gravitational constant.

Given these assumptions, we want to compute a PVector force, the force of gravity. We’ll do it in two parts. First, we’ll compute the direction of the force \hat{r}  

r

^

r, with, hat, on top in the formula above. Second, we’ll calculate the strength of the force according to the masses and distance.

Remember when we figured out how to have an object accelerate towards the mouse? We're going to use the same logic.

When a volleyball is tossed over a net, starting from a height of 1.5 meters above the ground, where  after reaching the top of its trajectory it returns to its original height as it falls, the ball's speed is the same as when it was tossed, but its velocity is different.

As ball 1 gets to the top of its trajectory, its velocity becomes zero.

since not stated otherwise, we assume that both balls have the same properties

If ball 2 is released at this instance, then they both will travel down at the same time interval and have initial velocity as zero.

since vertical travel is downwards, then acceleration due to gravity g is positive for both balls.

Learn more about velocity:

brainly.com/question/29519833

#SPJ4

Answer:

A. the time of fire is 15 seconds, and the angle of fire is approximately 23.794° above the horizontal

B. The angle of fire is increased to approximately 35.4126° above the horizontal

Explanation:

A. The height of the bridge, h = 70 m

The speed with of the shell, v₀ = 100 m/s

The location of the speedboat = 3000 m

The direction of the speedboat = 26 m/s

The acceleration of the speedboat, a = 11 m/s²

Let t represent the time of firing the shells, and let x represent the distance of the speedboat from the bridge, and let θ, represent the angle to fire with, we have;

For the speedboat, t = x/(100 × cos(θ))

We note that the time the shell can travel the 3,000 m = 30 seconds

Therefore an adequate time to fire is, t = 15 seconds

The distance the speedboat covers in 15 seconds is given as follows;

s = u·t + 1/2·a·t²

s = 26 × 15 + 1/2 × 11 × 15² = 1627.5 m

At the point the speedboat had traveled 1,627.5 m, the distance of the speedboat, x is then 3000 - 1,627.5 = 1,372.5 m from the bridge, the angle of fire is given from the following formula;

t = x/(100 × cos(θ))

15 = 1,372.5/(100 × cos(θ))

cos(θ) = 1,372.5/(15 × 100) = 0.915

θ = cos⁻¹(0.915) ≈ 23.794°

The angle of fire, θ ≈ 23.794° above the horizontal in the direction of the speedboat

B. Given that a 10 m/s wind is blowing towards East, we have;

The horizontal velocity towards East = 10 + v₀ × cos(θ)

The angle of firing is therefore, given as follows;

15 = 1,3725.5/(10 + 100 × cos(θ))

(10 + 100 × cos(θ)) = 1,3725.5/15

100 × cos(θ) = 1,372.5/15 - 10

cos(θ) = (1,372.5/15 - 10)/100 = 0.815

θ = cos⁻¹(0.815) ≈ 35.4126°

Therefore, the angle of fire, θ, will be increased to approximately 35.4126° above the horizontal in the remote controlled speedboat direction.

The law of conservation of energy states that energy is neither created nor destroyed; it is transformed and transferred (option B).

The law of conservation of energy is a principle stating that energy may not be created or destroyed but can only be transformed i.e. converted from one form to another.

This means that a system always has the same amount of energy, unless it's added from the outside.

The law states that the total energy of an isolated system remains constant; it is said to be conserved over time.

Therefore, according to this question, the law of conservation of energy is described correctly by option B.

Learn more about conservation of energy at: https://brainly.com/question/29775341

#SPJ1

Answer:

Once the ball is place at the position A and then released, It will accelerate towards the mean position under its weight. At the mean piston it again maximum velocity and momentum so its moves up-to the position B due to inertia. At B it has zero velocity so zero kinetic energy but maximum potential energy.

Again from point B it will move towards O under the restoring Force having maximum velocity at O but does not stop at O due to inertia and will go up to A. In this way the ball will continue to oscillate between the points A and B about the point O, it has simple harmonic motion.

Explanation:

Answer:

The answer is B.

Explanation:

They are in control of the experiment, they can change it the variables to better help the experiment.

Answer:

b

Explanation: its b

Answer:

C

Explanation:

I would have to say C because the girl is constantly moving in the act of serving the volleyball.

The current flowing through the 2.56-cm-diameter rod of pure silicon, which is 18.0 cm long, when 1.00 ✕ 103 V is applied to it, is approximately 2.17 A.

To determine the current flowing through the rod, we can use Ohm's Law, which states that current (I) is equal to voltage (V) divided by resistance (R). In this case, the rod is made of pure silicon, so we need to calculate its resistance.

The resistance of a cylindrical conductor can be calculated using the formula R = (ρ * L) / A, where ρ is the resistivity of the material, L is the length of the rod, and A is the cross-sectional area. The resistivity of pure silicon is approximately 640 Ω·cm.

First, let's calculate the cross-sectional area (A) of the rod. The diameter of the rod is 2.56 cm, so the radius (r) is half of that, which is 1.28 cm or 0.0128 m. Using the formula for the area of a circle (A = π * r²), we find that the cross-sectional area is approximately 0.00516 m^2.

Next, we can substitute the values into the formula for resistance: R = (640 Ω·cm * 0.18 m) / 0.00516 m². After performing the calculations, we find that the resistance of the rod is approximately 22,222 Ω.

Finally, we can use Ohm's Law to calculate the current: I = V / R. Substituting the given voltage of 1.00 ✕ 103 V and the resistance of 22,222 Ω, we find that the current flowing through the rod is approximately 2.17 A.

Learn more about current flowing

brainly.com/question/15912115

#SPJ11

Answer:

84% efficiency

Explanation:

21000/25000*100

The wavelength () is reciprocal to the wavenumber (v), which is measured in measures of cm1.

Calculate v1 = 1 / 1 where 1 = 1.5 m = 1.5  104 centimeters to determine the wavenumber of the fundamental N-H stretching vibration.Thus, 1 is equal to 1 / (1.5  104 cm)  6667 cm1.According to the N-H stretch, the second harmonic, which has twice the energy and frequency of the fundamental, correlates to the first overtone band. As a result, the wavenumber of the first overtone band can be roughly calculated as: 2 2 1 2 1 2 6667 cm 1 = 13334 cm 1 .The formula 2 = 1 / 2 can be used to determine the frequency (2) of the first overtone band.So,λ₂ = 1 / (13334 cm⁻¹) ≈ 0.75 µm

Consequently, the first overtone band from the N-H stretch has an estimated wavenumber of 13334 cm-1 and an estimated duration of 0.75 m.

Learn more about wavenumber here :

https://brainly.com/question/14941879

#SPJ4

To determine which variables will not be used in calculating the electric potential at points a and b, it is important to first understand the equation for electric potential.

The electric potential at a point is equal to the potential energy per unit charge at that point. The equation is given as V = U/q, where V is the electric potential, U is the potential energy, and q is the charge.

Looking at the given variables, we have q1, q2, q3, q4, and s. q1, q2, q3, and q4 represent charges while s is the distance between the charges. To calculate the electric potential at points a and b, we need to know the values of the charges and the distances between them.

Based on this information, it can be concluded that the variable 's' will not be used in calculating the electric potential at points a and b. This is because the variable 's' only represents the distance between the charges and does not provide any information on the charges themselves. However, the charges q1, q2, q3, and q4 are crucial in calculating the electric potential at points a and b.

Therefore, to calculate the electric potential at points a and b, we need to know the values of the charges q1, q2, q3, and q4, and the distances between them. The variable 's' is not necessary for this calculation as it only represents the distance between the charges and not the charges themselves.

For more such questions on variables

https://brainly.com/question/82796

#SPJ11

Answer:

Atomic clocks are the most accurate time and frequency standards known, and are used as primary standards for international time distribution services, to control the wave frequency of television broadcasts, and in global navigation satellite systems such as GPS.

Answer:

6.7 x 10^8 mi/hr

Explanation:

Do the math with units ONLY

   km/s    *   miles/ km   *  s/hr   =   mi / hr    ( ...as the km and s cancel out)

                           now.... put in the numbers

     3 x 10^5   km/s   *   .62  mi/km  * 3600 s / hr  = 6.7x 10 ^8  mi/hr

Answer:

wait what do you mean? And why is this in physics?

Is this about the iron dome or something biblical?

Explanation:

Answer:

the story of Israel is part of the Bible that's what what you're your lesson is

Explanation:

Answer:

3

Explanation:

Answer is what its supposed to be. lol.

Stick with it brother. You GOT THIS!!! 100%

b.

The period of a wave is the time it takes for one complete wave to pass a fixed point. We are given that 4 complete waves pass a fixed point in 10 seconds.

To find the period, we can divide the total time by the number of complete waves:  10 seconds ÷ 4 waves = 2.5 seconds per wave


To determine the period of a water wave, we need to know how much time it takes for one complete wave to pass a fixed point. In this case, 4 complete waves pass in 10 seconds.

Step 1: Find the time it takes for one complete wave to pass.
Divide the total time (10 seconds) by the number of complete waves (4 waves).

10 seconds / 4 waves = 2.5 seconds

Step 2: Identify the corresponding answer choice.
The period of the water wave is 2.5 seconds, which corresponds to answer choice C.

Your answer: C: 2.5 s

to learn more about numbers click here:

brainly.com/question/29766862

#SPJ11

Answer:

projectiles is an object

Explanation:

projectiles moves freely under the influence of gravity and air resistance

Answer:

4200 Newtons

Explanation:

Force = mass x acceleration

1200 x 3.5 = 4200