A 77-year-old client has experienced an ischemic stroke and is now dependent for all activities of daily living. The nurse should start reposition of the patient on a regular basis to prevent skin breakdown.
What is common cause of ischemic stroke ?The majority of strokes are ischemic in nature. They take place when a blood clot prevents blood and oxygen from reaching the brain. These blood clots generally develop in regions where fatty deposits called plaques have caused the arteries to constrict or become obstructed over time. The term "atherosclerosis" refers to this process.
Atherosclerosis, or fatty deposits lining the vessel walls, is the primary factor in ischemic stroke. Two different obstructions can result from fatty deposits: A blood clot known as a cerebral thrombosis forms at a fatty plaque inside a blood artery.
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Before applying dry heat or cold applications what do you do
Answer:
Cover dry heat or cold applications before applying them. Use a flannel cover, towel, or other cover as directed. Use a flannel cover, towel, or other cover as directed. •Provide for privacy.
in the charge capture activity which button do you click to send the charges to billing true or false
The given statement "in the charge capture activity which button do you click to send the charges to billing" is true because in the charge capture activity, you would click on the "Send/Submitt" button to send the charges to billing.
his will ensure that the charges are accurately captured and sent to the appropriate department for billing purposes. It is important to always double-check your charges before clicking the "Send/Submit" button to ensure that they are correct and complete.
In summary, in the charge capture activity, you click the "Submit" or "Send" button to send the captured charges to the billing system for further processing and reimbursement.
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there is a severe shortage of critical care doctors and nurses to provide intensive-care services in hospitals. to offset this shortage, many hospitals, such as emory hospital in atlanta, are using electronic intensive-care units (eicus) to help provide this care to patients (emory university news center). eicus use electronic monitoring tools and two-way communication through video and audio so that a centralized staff of specially trained doctors and nurses - who can be located as far away as australia - can provide critical care services to patients located in remote hospitals without fully staffed icus. one of the most important metrics tracked by these eicus is the time that a patient must wait for the first video interaction between the patient and the eicu staff. consider the following sample of patient waiting times until their first video interaction with the eicu staff.
A severe shortage of critical care physicians and nurses is currently affecting the availability of intensive-care services in hospitals.
To remedy the situation, electronic intensive-care units (EICUs) are being used by many hospitals,
such as Emory Hospital in Atlanta, to provide this care to patients (Emory University News Center).
EICUs use electronic monitoring tools and two-way communication through video and audio so that a centralized staff of specially trained doctors and nurses can provide critical care services to patients located in remote hospitals without fully staffed ICUs,
who can be located as far away as Australia.
One of the most important metrics tracked by these EICUs is the time that a patient must wait for the first video interaction between the patient and the EICU staff.
The following is a sample of patient waiting times until their first video interaction with the EICU staff:
Based on the data, the mean waiting time for the first video interaction is 16.24 minutes, with a standard deviation of 5.32 minutes.
The maximum waiting time was 29 minutes, and the minimum waiting time was 8 minutes.
In terms of a normal distribution, the data are reasonably symmetrical, with a few outliers at the tail.
These data indicate that most patients waited between 11 and 21 minutes for their first video interaction with EICU staff.
Furthermore, the mean time of 16.24 minutes is well within the time limit set by the EICU staff to respond to patients,
indicating that they are meeting their metric for patient waiting time.
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Why & Who is your model teacher in nursing teaching professional subject/s?
Answer:
A role model is a person who inspires and encourages us to strive for greatness, live to our fullest potential and see the best in ourselves. A role model is someone we admire and someone we aspire to be like. We learn through them, through their commitment to excellence and through their ability to make us realize our own personal growth. We look to them for advice and guidance.
A role model can be anybody: a parent, a sibling, a friend but some of our most influential and life-changing role models are teachers.
which of these hormones is released by the adrenal medulla
Adrenaline is the hormone that is released by the adrenal medulla.Adrenal glands are triangular-shaped glands that are situated over the kidneys.
They are responsible for the secretion of hormones that regulate various functions of the body. Adrenal glands have two distinct parts; adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla.Adrenal cortex produces hormones such as aldosterone, cortisol, and sex hormones. While, the adrenal medulla is responsible for the secretion of epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline).When the body is exposed to stress, the adrenal medulla produces adrenaline and noradrenaline.
These hormones are responsible for preparing the body to fight or flee the stressor. They cause an increase in heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure. Additionally, they cause dilation of the pupils, increase in the blood sugar levels, and increased blood flow to the muscles.The release of adrenaline is regulated by the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the “fight or flight” response of the body. When the body experiences stress, the sympathetic nervous system activates and prepares the body to either fight or flee.
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which of the following is an anesthetic that would be commonly stockpiled and used during a disaster
Explanation:
A cellular phone network uses towers to
transmit calls. If the equation of the circular area
transmits by the tower is represented by (x-5)2 +
ly-1)2 = 22. Can you identify if you are inside or
outside of the circular area, if your coordinate
location is (6,0)? How about if your location is
(8,2)?
which statement accurately described a microscopic apprach to the delineation of community health nursing problems
Answer: Is there supposed to be options? Sorry but here's my answer. Hope it helps!
Analyzing aggregate BMIs, advocating a change in school lunches, and exploring societal and cultural values related to activity are examples of a macroscopic approach to the community health problem of childhood obesity.
Explanation:
A psychosomatic disease is best defined as a disease in which
there are no observable symptoms.
mental factors do not affect overall health.
the body and mind contribute to an illness.
stress is unrelated to physical conditions.
Answer:
Body and mind contribute to the illness
Explanation:
If someone gently strokes the hairs on the back on the back of your neck, you feel a tingling sensation. explain why.
Answer:
Autonomous sensory meridian response, commonly referred as ASMR, is an experience characterized by a static-like or tingling sensation on the skin that typically begins on the scalp and moves down the back of the neck and upper spine.
Explanation:
How many root words are in the medical term ot/o/laryng/o/logist? A.two. B.one. C. Three
Answer:
B. One
Explanation:
...
what is the best way for the nurse to position a chest tube for a client to prevent dislocation?
The best way for a nurse to position a chest tube for a client to prevent dislocation is to position the patient comfortably, secure the chest tube with an airtight dressing, avoid tension on the tubing, and maintain proper drainage system placement.
The nurse should first ensure that the patient is in a comfortable and stable position, typically in a semi-Fowler's or high-Fowler's position. This allows for optimal lung expansion and helps to facilitate the removal of air or fluid from the pleural space.
The nurse should then secure the chest tube using a dressing that is occlusive and non-adherent, such as a petrolatum gauze, to create an airtight seal around the insertion site. This prevents air from entering the pleural space and helps to maintain the negative pressure required for lung re-expansion.
Next, the nurse should carefully secure the tubing to the patient's skin using tape or a securement device, avoiding any tension or kinks in the tubing that could lead to dislocation. The chest tube should also be connected to a drainage system, which should be positioned below the patient's chest level to promote proper drainage and prevent backflow of fluid.
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Which medical equipment would most benefit an asthmatic entering the emergency department with severe breathing distress
The medical equipment that would most benefit an asthmatic entering the emergency department with severe breathing distress is a Small Volume Nebulizer (SVN).
A Small Volume Nebulizer (SVN) is a medical device commonly used in the treatment of asthma and other respiratory conditions. It is designed to deliver medication directly into the lungs, providing quick relief and improving breathing distress.
During an asthma attack, the airways become inflamed and narrowed, making it difficult for the person to breathe. The SVN works by converting liquid medication into a fine mist that can be inhaled, allowing the medication to reach the airways and provide relief. The mist is generated by a compressor that pumps air through a tube connected to a nebulizer chamber, where the medication is placed. The patient then breathes in the mist through a mouthpiece or mask.
The SVN is particularly beneficial in the emergency department for individuals with severe breathing distress because it delivers medication directly to the lungs, providing rapid relief and helping to alleviate respiratory symptoms. It allows for the efficient administration of bronchodilators and other medications that help to open up the airways and improve breathing. By using an SVN, healthcare professionals can quickly address the breathing distress and initiate appropriate treatment to stabilize the patient's condition.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) and moderate carotid stenosis who has undergone a carotid endarterectomy. Which postoperative finding would cause the nurse the most concern
The postoperative finding that would cause the nurse the most concern is difficulty in swallowing.
What are transient ischemic attacks?
An episode of transient ischemic attack (TIA), which has symptoms resembling those of a stroke, occurs suddenly. A TIA typically lasts only a few minutes and has no lasting effects.
What is carotid endarterectomy?Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a build-up of fatty deposits (plaque), which cause narrowing of a carotid artery.
The carotid arteries are the main blood vessels that supply blood to the neck, face and brain.
Carotid endarterectomies are carried out when 1 or both carotid arteries become narrowed because of a build-up of fatty deposits (plaque).
This is known as carotid artery disease or carotid artery stenosis.
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In the heart, all the following are true except :
a) the pericardium limits sudden dilatation of the ventricl
b) the left ventricle gives an aid to the right ventricle
c) the left atrium is the first part to contract.
d) the left side of the intervent. septum is depolarized bet
right side .
Answer: c
Explanation:
How does dialysis stimulate the kidneys
The total water volume of a healthy adult male is approximately 42 liters, or between 50-65% of his body weight. The total water volume of a healthy adult female is approximately 45-60% of her body weight. Generally, this lower percentage in females is due to a higher fat percentage or a larger fat compartment. Which of the following consequences can occur in female patients taking fat-soluble drugs compared to male patients? (Select all that apply.)
1 It will take more time for the drug to leave the fat compartment.
2 More of the drug will move into the fat compartment.
3 The drug will stay in the body for longer.
4 The drug effects will last longer.
Answer:
3.the drug will stay in the body longer
Which structure is responsible for transporting semen outside of the body?
Answer:
Urethra
Explanation:
Answer:
urethra
Explanation:
i got it right on the test
hazards in a health care setting that would require personal protective equipment (ppe) include
Hazards in a health care setting that would require personal protective equipment (PPE) include exposure to infectious agents, contact with blood and body fluids, sharp objects and needlestick injuries, hazardous chemicals, and airborne contaminants.
There are several hazards in a healthcare setting that would require personal protective equipment (PPE) to be used by healthcare workers. These hazards include exposure to infectious diseases, exposure to hazardous chemicals and drugs, exposure to radiation, and physical hazards such as cuts, punctures, and abrasions. PPE that may be required to protect against these hazards includes gloves, gowns, masks, eye protection, and respirators. It is important for healthcare workers to use the appropriate PPE for the specific hazard they may encounter to ensure their safety and the safety of their patients.
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which regulatory agency would initiate a class ii recall on a prescription drug ?
In the United States, the regulatory agency that would initiate a Class II recall on a prescription drug is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
The FDA is responsible for protecting public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and quality of drugs, medical devices, food, and other products. When the FDA becomes aware of a problem with a prescription drug that poses a moderate risk to patient health, they may classify the recall as Class II.
A Class II recall is issued when a product may cause temporary or reversible adverse health effects, or where the probability of serious adverse health effects is remote. It signifies a situation where the product's use may lead to significant health problems but is not likely to cause immediate or life-threatening harm.
Therefore, the FDA would be the regulatory agency to initiate a Class II recall on a prescription drug in the United States.
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Need help with the entire thing (Will Mark Brainliest)
Answer: A. She is experiencing symptoms from a perforated eardrum
Explanation: Accept: A. It is possible that the student is experiencing symptoms of a perforated eardrum, which could result from exposure to loud noises at the nightclub where she works as a DJ. A perforated eardrum can cause hearing problems, including difficulty hearing high-pitched tones.
Reject:
B. She is experiencing symptoms from otitis media - Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, but it typically causes pain and pressure in the ear, rather than hearing problems.
C. She is experiencing symptoms from damage to structures in the inner ear - This is a possible explanation for the symptoms she is experiencing, but it is not the most probable explanation.
D. She is experiencing symptoms of otosclerosis - Otosclerosis is a condition that affects the bones in the middle ear, but it typically causes progressive hearing loss and is not usually associated with sudden hearing problems.
E. What she is experiencing is quite normal and she should not worry about it - This is not a likely explanation for the student's symptoms, as hearing problems, especially those related to exposure to loud noises, should be taken seriously and evaluated by a healthcare provider.
Based on the information in the previous question, you would expect Dominic's antibody levels to
O increase
O decrease
Answer:
decrease
Explanation:
Your friends Russ and Damion, invite you to watch the NBA Finals. They have a
luxurious spread of meats, cheeses, chips, pretzels, and dips. What is a party without some
fruit punch and lemonade? While cheering on his BFF Kevin, Russ stuffs his face with a square
piece of Colby Jack Cheese. Suddenly in the cheering of a big-time defensive play, you notice
Russ looking panicked and reaching for a drink of his lemonade. He then begins to place his
hands around his throat.
Answer:
fruit punch and lemonade please
Explanation:
How much cation is people
Answer: 4
Explanation:
iron atoms can form 2+ cations or 3+ cations.
iron deficiency anemia is common in the post six month old infant and the toddler. why does this happen? what food sources should be served to correct this problem?
Iron deficiency anemia is a common condition in infants and toddlers because they are going through a rapid growth phase and require iron to support their development.
Additionally, the amount of iron stores that they receive from their mothers during pregnancy starts to decrease around 6 months of age. If their diet does not provide enough iron, this can lead to iron deficiency anemia.
Infants and toddlers need approximately 11 mg of iron per day, which can be provided by a variety of foods. Iron-rich foods that can be incorporated into the diet include:
Red meat such as beef, lamb, or pork
Poultry such as chicken or turkey
Fish such as salmon or tuna
Legumes such as lentils, beans, and chickpeas
Iron-fortified cereals and grains such as oatmeal or bread
Dark green leafy vegetables such as spinach or kale
To enhance the absorption of iron, it is recommended to pair these foods with foods rich in vitamin C, such as citrus fruits or tomatoes.
Breastfed infants should receive iron supplements starting at 4 months of age, and iron-fortified formula should be given to formula-fed infants. Toddlers who do not consume enough iron-rich foods may also require a daily iron supplement.
It is important to consult with a healthcare provider or a registered dietitian to ensure that infants and toddlers are receiving adequate nutrition and iron intake to support their growth and development.
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If too much glucose were administered to Skyler Hansen while the health care team was trying to correct his blood glucose level, what could occur
Answer:
if you apply to much sugar to the body a person could do in a diabetic shock and go into a coma
a client who survived an explosion was found with moist blebs and blisters on the skin with cherry red color. the client is having severe pain. after assessing, the nurse finds the skin is hypersensitive to touch or air. which condition can be suspected in the client?
The client was found with moist blebs and blisters on the skin with cherry red color and severe pain. After assessing, the nurse finds that the skin is hypersensitive to touch or air. Based on these findings, the condition that can be suspected in the client is thermal burns.
Thermal burns occur as a result of exposure to heat, such as flames, hot liquids, or hot objects. The severity of thermal burns depends on the degree of skin damage. Superficial burns affect only the epidermis and are characterized by redness, pain, and slight swelling. Partial-thickness burns affect both the epidermis and dermis and are characterized by the presence of moist blebs and blisters. Full-thickness burns affect all skin layers and can extend to the underlying tissues.
In the case of the client, the presence of moist blebs and blisters on the skin with cherry red color, severe pain, and hypersensitivity to touch or air suggests a partial-thickness thermal burn. The nurse should provide appropriate interventions, such as pain management, wound care, and fluid resuscitation, to prevent complications and promote healing.
In conclusion, a client who survived an explosion was found with moist blebs and blisters on the skin with cherry red color, severe pain, and hypersensitivity to touch or air. The condition that can be suspected in the client is thermal burns, which require prompt and appropriate interventions.
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The component of electronic medical records that documents permission from the patient or family for surgeries or procedures is called
i think the answer is consent
The component of electronic medical records that documents permission from the patient or family for surgeries or procedures is called consent to treatment.
What is a Medical record?A medical record may be defined as a type of documentation that assists the health care staff as well as others in order to realize the actual health of a patient and recording all information about a patient's health status.
The consent to treatment documents all sorts of medical procedures, routine services, diagnostic tests, medical care, patient's need, etc. in electronic form. It also stores all permissions from the patient or their family members for any diagnostic tests and surgeries. It significantly requires all sorts of permission from patient's side.
Therefore, consent to treatment is the component of electronic medical records that documents permission from the patient or family for surgeries or procedures.
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Someone who has a CCS is most likely a ____
A. medical coder at a doctor's office.
B. medical coder at a hospital.
C.medical transcriptionist at a doctor's office.
D.medical transcriptionist at a hospital.
Answer:
Actually its B.
Explanation:
Because CCS stands for Certified Coding Specialist, and I took the test
Answer:B- Medical coder at a hospital.
Explanation:
B-
Medical coder at a hospital.
I took the test on edge 2023.
I got the question correct.
i truly hope this is helpful!
And remember always do your best.
Do or do not, there is no try.
- Yoda
true/false. if you were going to eat a morrell mushroom, it would be best to cut it open longwise first to determine if it was toxic
Which healthcare professional requires the greatest amount of education prior to working?
O neurosurgeon
O neurologist
O neuroscience nurse
O neuro physical therapist
Answer: The answer to this would be Neurosurgeon.
Explanation: Just another thing that my mother learned while being an R.N. Hope this helps, Dee Dee.