If a 72-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia is admitted to the hospital with chills, fever, and vomiting, the nurse will be helpful in determining whether the patient has an upper urinary tract infection (UTI) is c. costovertebral tenderness
Costovertebral tenderness is located on the back and sides, just below the ribs, and may indicate an infection in the kidneys or surrounding tissues. Suprapubic pain and bladder distention are more indicative of lower UTIs and may not necessarily indicate an upper urinary tract infection (UTI) . Foul-smelling urine can also be a sign of infection, but it is not specific to an upper UTI.
Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for costovertebral tenderness and report this finding to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment. Overall, prompt and accurate diagnosis of an upper UTI is crucial for effective treatment and prevention of complications in older adults. The nurse will be helpful in determining whether the patient has an upper urinary tract infection (UTI) is c. costovertebral tenderness
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How does mucus help protect us from infection?
Answer:
Mucus is sticky and stops dust and other debris from getting in through the nose when you inhale. In the lungs, it stop traps debris on its way to the lungs, where it is moved out of the lungs by cilia to be then swallowed into the stomach or spat out.
Calculate how many tablets for one (1) dose for each of the prescriptions below:
Order: Abilify 10 mg po qd
Give:
The prescription is for Abilify 10 mg po qd.
The abbreviation "po" stands for "by mouth," and "qd" stands for "once daily."
This means that the patient is supposed to take 10 mg of Abilify orally once a day.
The number of tablets needed for one dose will depend on the strength of the tablets that are available.
If the tablets available are 10 mg each, then the patient would take one tablet per dose.
If the tablets available are a different strength, then the number of tablets needed for one dose will need to be adjusted accordingly.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) with the following vital signs, pulse 115, respiration 20, temperature 36°C oral, blood pressure 84/50. What should the nurse do first?
The thing that the nurse should do first is to assess the bleeding.
Who is a nurse?It should be noted that a nurse simply means an individual who works in a clinic, hospital, etc to care for patients and ensure that they get well.
In this case, the nurse is caring for a patient in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) with the following vital signs, pulse 115, respiration 20, temperature 36°C oral, blood pressure 84/50.
Therefore, the thing that the nurse should do first is to assess the bleeding. The main action is to check for hemorrhage because the patient has low blood pressure and a tachycardic heart rate. When phoning the doctor, the nurse must be able to describe the patient's entire condition, including any bleeding, even though the doctor may need to be informed.
According to a doctor's prescription, the pace at which IV fluids are administered should be modified. Prior vital signs should be reviewed by the nurse, but only after determining whether there is an imminent bleeding hazard.
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When communicating with medical control via radio, you should:A) request confirmation for any orders given.B) use codes or signals to ensure patient privacy.C) carry out all verbal orders without question.D) avoid the use of complicated medical
When communicating with medical control via radio, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure effective and safe communication. One of the recommended practices is to request confirmation for any orders given.
When communicating with medical control via radio, it is crucial to maintain clear and accurate communication. Requesting confirmation for any orders given is essential because it allows for clarification and reduces the risk of errors. It ensures that both parties involved in the communication are on the same page and have a shared understanding of the instructions or directives. This practice promotes patient safety and reduces the likelihood of mistakes in providing appropriate medical interventions.
Additionally, using codes or signals to ensure patient privacy is important in radio communications. Medical information is highly sensitive, and maintaining patient confidentiality is a legal and ethical requirement. By using codes or signals, healthcare professionals can convey essential information without explicitly disclosing sensitive details. This helps to protect patient privacy and confidentiality, preventing unauthorized individuals from accessing or overhearing confidential medical information. Effective communication practices in radio communication with medical control contribute to providing optimal care while respecting patient privacy and confidentiality.
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Mrs. Chou likes a Private Fee-for-Service (PFFS) plan available in her area that does not include drug coverage. She wants to enroll in the plan and enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan. What should you tell her?
Answer:
She could enroll in a PFFS plan and a stand-alone Medicare prescription drug plan.
Explanation:
If one half of the DNA ladder is above sequence, what is the other side of the ladder’s DNA sequence?
When we sleep, what does the brain replenish it’s stock for?
Answer:
it does not replenish shock but has cerebrospinal fluid that absorbs shock
Why is it good for scientists to share information from their investigation
Answer: See below.
Explanation:
The reason why it is good for scientists to share information because when a scientist publishes a result such as in research projects or in peer-reviewed journals, it enables the scientific and medical community to evaluate on the findings and also provides instructions for other researchers to do the same thing in order to experiment and verify the results from the former.
_____ therapies treat anxieties by subjecting people to the things they fear and avoid.
Please type the correct answer in the following input field, and then select the submit answer button or press the enter key when finished.
Answer:
Exposure
Explanation:
Exposure therapy is a psychological treatment that was developed to help people confront their fears. When people are fearful of something, they tend to avoid the feared objects, activities or situations.
S. aureus and Enterococcus are similar in that they: a. are caused by gram positive cocci
b. are both found on the skin c. are commonly found in a hospital setting d. are best defeated with antimicrobial agents that inhibit the cell membrane e. frequently cause respiratory diseases
How long do you take an apical pulse for
Answer:Typically, apical pulse rate is taken for a full minute to ensure accuracy; this is particularly important in infants and children due to the possible presence of sinus arrhythmia. Upon auscultating the apical pulse, you will hear the sounds “lub dup” – this counts as one beat. Count the apical pulse for one minute.
Explanation:
Scenario:
Assume you are a pharmacy assistant in a nursing home, screening patients for contraindications and drug interactions. What is the
potential drug problem--and its solution--for each of the following cases?
a. Patient A has hypertension. He has been prescribed hydrocortisone injections for severe bursitis.
b. Patient B is diabetic. She has been prescribed prednisolone for osteoarthritis.
Please use the textbook (chapter 36) as a reference for this discussion. A maximum of 10 points will be given for this assignment.
Answer:
a- hydrocortisone cause hypertension by renin-angiotensin-aldosterone.we treate that by diuretics
b-prednisolone cause increase blood sugar by increasing resistance liver for insulin. we can treat by cream or reduce dose
medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
14. Thomas is 3 months old and weighs 15 lb 6 oz. Thomas is prescribed a medication q6h. The label states that there's 400 mg of the drug in 10 ml
suspension. The recommended dose of the medication for infants is 50 mg/kg/day. How much should Thomas receive per dose?
O A. 1.2 ml
OB. 4.2 mi
O C.3.2 ml
O D. 2.2 ml
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
Dosage
A dosage is the amount of a medicine or drug that someone takes or should take, and how ` they should take it.
1 oz = 0.0283495 kg; also 1 lb = 0.453592 kg.
Hence 15 lb 6 oz = (15 lb * 0.453592 kg/lb) + (6 oz * 0.0283495 kg/oz) = 6.97 kg
Since the dosage is 50 mg/kg/day. Hence amount of mg given is:
Amount of mg = 50 mg/kg/day * 6.97 kg = 348.5 mg per day
Each 10 ml contains 400 mg; hence:
ml = 348.5 mg * 10 ml per 400 mg = 8.71 ml per day
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
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a type ii diabetic patient with high fever and cough has decreased mean arterial pressure and an increased level of lactic acid. based on the reports, the patient is administered fludrocortisone. what does the nurse infer from the findings?
The results lead the nurse to conclude that patient is going through septic shock.
What does septic shock entail?Septic shock is a potentially fatal illness that develops after an infection when ones blood pressure falls to an unsafely low level. The infection might be brought on from any type of bacterium. Although it is uncommon, viruses and fungi like candida can potentially be the cause. The infection may first cause a condition known as sepsis.
What causes septic shock most frequently?Septic shock can be brought on by any kind of bacteria. Viruses and (occasionally) fungi can also contribute to the illness. The bacteria or fungus may emit toxins that harm tissue. Blood pressure and dysfunctional organs could result from this.
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when is a patient ordinarily given a stress test rather than a resting ecg? how is the test conducted?
Patients are usually given an ECG test when they feel palpitations, irregular heart rhythms, chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, fatigue, and weak body.
The test is carried out by placing electrodes by attaching electrodes that have been given gel on the chest. The officer will check and print the EKG results.
What is an ECG test?An ECG test is a standard diagnostic test used to evaluate heart function. Electrocardiography (ECG) reflects the electrical activity of the heart muscle fibers by stroke.
This test is done when a person feels palpitations, irregular heart rhythm, chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, fatigue, and the body feels weak.
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Which nursing’s actions are appropriate to the roles/responsibilities of the LPN/LVN?
Answer:
Uses active listening techniques when in- teracting with a depressed patient 2. Reports changes in vital signs to the health care provider in a timely fashion 3. Takes initiative to create a comprehensive care plan for a newly admitted patient 4. Ensures that the correct medication is giv- en to the correct patient at the correct time 5. Collects data from the patient, the family, and previous medical records
According to Sung et al. (1), a clinical trial titled PRIDE (Program to Reduce Incontinence by Diet and Exercise) evaluated 338 obese and overweight women aged 30 or older who had urinary incontinence symptoms. The study found that women with depression symptoms (N = 101) reported more episodes of incontinence per week (28 vs 23; P = 0.005).
a. How was this study designed?
b. It is possible that depression increases the frequency of urinary incontinence. Is there another explanation for this association, and how might changing the study design help you figure it out?
a) The study titled PRIDE (Program to Reduce Incontinence by Diet and Exercise) evaluated 338 obese and overweight women aged 30 or older who had urinary incontinence symptoms.
This clinical trial was designed to evaluate the impact of dietary and exercise interventions on urinary incontinence. The researchers were interested in exploring if dietary and exercise interventions had any effect on reducing the incontinence symptoms in women who were overweight or obese.
b) The link between depression and incontinence symptoms could be linked to a possible explanation other than depression itself. For instance, the study could have considered factors such as anxiety, stress, and other psychiatric disorders that are often comorbid with depression. Additionally, changes in the study design could provide additional insights.
For instance, researchers could consider randomizing women with depression into a treatment or control group to assess whether dietary and exercise interventions can help improve incontinence symptoms. Another approach could involve assessing the role of depression and other psychological factors in urinary incontinence across different population groups.
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The nurse is preparing to administer celecoxib to a patient. What medication taken by the patient should the nurse monitor because of an increased risk of
adverse effects?
Beginning with chemicals and proceeding through increasing levels of complexity in levels of
organization, the correct sequence is?
when is the earliest you can take a pregnancy test
A medical assistant is preparing a patient for a procedure to have a mole excised. Which one of the following actions should the assistant take?
The medical assistant should cleanse the site with surgical soap and an antiseptic while preparing the patient for mole excision.
The removal of mole from a person is a very short process and takes very less amount of time. Moles generally do not need treatment unless the person himself decides to remove the mole. During the process of removal of mole, the doctor usually makes the area of the patient where the mole is present numb using some medical anesthesia.
After this the doctor cuts out the mole from the area. Along with the mole some amount of skin is also cut out if it is necessary in some cases. This can leave a mark that may be permanent unless treated. Some people with other skin issues may have some side effects due to this process of mole excision.
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Which of the following statements is true of cones?
The statement that is true about cones is:
These cells are responsible for color vision.What are cones?The photosensitive cells found in the retina of vertebrate animals are called cones.
Characteristics of conesThey are structurally similar to rods, but require much higher light intensity to become active.They operate in daylight conditions and are responsible for photopic vision, where the color perception occurs.Therefore, we can conclude that the receptors of the colors are the cones (photosensitive cells that are located in the retina, responsible for us perceiving colors in one way or another).
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The tendency of a person to catastrophize the extent of loss lowers his blood pressure.
Answer: What is the question
Explanation:
a nurse is caring for a client following an arterial vascular bypass graft in the leg. what should the nurse plan to assess over the next 24 hours?
A nurse is caring for a client following an arterial vascular bypass graft in the leg, so the things the nurse plans to assess over the next 24 hours are checking the pulse and blood pressure, pain management, the graft site, etc.
What is the significance of nursing care in grafting?The nurse should assess the client's level of pain and pain effectiveness on a regular basis to look for changes and signs of arterial insufficiency and encourage the client to move the affected limb, among other things.
Hence, a nurse is caring for a client following an arterial vascular bypass graft in the leg, so the things the nurse plans to assess over the next 24 hours are checking the pulse and blood pressure, pain management, the graft site, etc.
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a nurse working on a busy medical-surgical unit does not take the vital signs of client who is preparing for discharge but instead documents the same vital signs obtained for this client earlier in the morning. for which tort would the nurse be potentially liable?
fraud , Vital signs serve as markers of the body's most basic functions.
What does vital signs mean?Indicators of the body's most fundamental functions are vital signs. Doctors and other healthcare professionals typically examine the following four vital signs: Body temperature pulse rate respiration rate (rate of breathing)
Vital signs are a reliable indicator of a living thing's basic physiological functions. Because measuring and analyzing them is a crucial first step in any clinical evaluation, they are referred to be "vital."
Your heart rate, breathing or respiratory rate, blood pressure, and temperature are examples of your vital signs. By taking your vital signs, your doctor can assess how your basic bodily functions are working. If necessary, your vital signs might be recorded.
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3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?
The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.
What is EDTA?EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.
EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.
EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.
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Omar runs a popular sports bar and grill that is soon to implement a new point-of-sale software. Which of these represents a learning objective that Omar might set?A. Increase the number of tables who order appetizers.B. Decrease food waste by 15%.C. Provide all customers with a follow-up survey.D. Ensure all employees complete a virtual training on the new software.
Omar may establish a learning goal that is appropriate for him, such as making sure that every employee completes a virtual training on the new program. So, option D is correct.
The SMART technique is a goal-setting strategy that can assist both individuals and businesses in creating precise, measurable, doable, pertinent, and time-bound goals.
This goal is SMART, which is a useful method for making goals. It is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. It lays out a specific, quantifiable objective that can be monitored and assessed over time. For the point-of-sale system to be implemented successfully and eventually boost productivity and income for the company, it is crucial that all employees complete the online training for the new software.
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1. MA Certifying Organizations (List four.)
Suzanne was diagnosed with lymphocytopenia. Lymphocytes are white blood cells, so which best describes Suzanne’s condition?
swelling of white blood cells
abnormally large white blood cells
low levels of white blood cells
ruptured white blood cells
Answer:
C. Low levels of white blood cells