Treatment generally consists of symptomatic relief, such as acetaminophen to reduce the fever.
What is symptomatic?Symptomatic is used to describe the physical or mental signs and symptoms associated with a disease or other medical condition. Symptoms can include pain, fever, rash, confusion, or other physical, mental, or emotional changes. Diagnosis of a condition is based on the patient's symptoms, as well as a physical examination and lab tests. When a patient has a certain set of symptoms, it is usually indicative of an underlying medical condition and requires further investigation.
The nurse should suspect a condition called Roseola infantum. Roseola is a common virus that affects children under the age of two. It is characterized by sudden high fever lasting up to a week, followed by the appearance of a rash. The rash consists of discrete, rose-pink macules that are approximately 2 to 3 mm and flat with the skin surface. The rash typically appears on the trunk, neck and face. Treatment generally consists of symptomatic relief, such as acetaminophen to reduce the fever.
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Healthcare systems are working to improve care, reduce expenses, and improve the patient experience. The process of identifying, prioritizing, and implementing changes can be done right with the right tools, process, and people.
In this assignment, you will write an essay about the quality in healthcare. The minimum length requirement is 500 words. Respond to the following:
1. Give your definition of quality in healthcare. What are the characteristics of high quality healthcare?
2. Give an example of an approach to improve quality.
3. Why is quality in healthcare important? Provide evidence to support your opinion.
Please cite all your sources. Thank you.
This assignment discusses the concept of quality in healthcare, including its definition, characteristics of high-quality healthcare, an example of an approach to improve quality, and the importance of quality in healthcare.
To complete the assignment, "Quality in Healthcare," you can follow these steps:
1. Introduction:
a. Introduce the topic of quality in healthcare and its significance in improving care, reducing expenses, and enhancing the patient experience.
b. Provide a brief overview of the purpose of the essay and the structure of the response.
2. Definition of quality in healthcare:
a. Present your own definition of quality in healthcare.
a.biscuss the various dimensions and characteristics that contribute to high-quality healthcare.
c. Include factors such as patient safety, effectiveness of treatment, patient-centeredness, timeliness, efficiency, and equity.
3. Example of an approach to improve quality:
a. Provide an example of a specific approach or methodology that has been used to improve quality in healthcare.
b. Describe the approach in detail, including its key components and how it addresses the identified dimensions of quality.
c. Discuss any evidence or research that supports the effectiveness of the approach in achieving quality improvement.
4. Importance of quality in healthcare:
a. Explain why quality in healthcare is crucial and its impact on various stakeholders.
b. Discuss the benefits of high-quality healthcare, such as improved patient outcomes, enhanced patient satisfaction, reduced healthcare costs, and increased efficiency.
c. Support your claims with evidence from reputable sources, including studies, reports, or expert opinions.
5. Conclusion:
a. Summarize the key points discussed in the essay.
b. Reinforce the importance of quality in healthcare and its role in achieving the desired goals of healthcare systems.
c. Emphasize the need for ongoing efforts to identify, prioritize, and implement changes that enhance the quality of care.
6. Citations:
a. Ensure that all sources used in the essay are properly cited.
b. Follow the appropriate citation style (e.g., APA, MLA) and provide in-text citations as well as a reference list or bibliography.
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Which of the following statements concerning anger is false? Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A.There are positive aspects associated with feelings of anger.
B. Anger is one of the most passionate emotions.
C. Anger can result if one experiences limitation.
D. Anger is only a maladaptive emotion.
(Pychology)
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Answer:
D on edge
Explanation:
A 67-year-old male patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of progressively worsening bouts of right leg weakness. His wife notes that he is confused and often has trouble forming words at these times, which typically last about a day. The right leg weakness improves only slightly from instance to instance, leaving him weaker each time. Because the symptoms are transient, he has put off seeing a physician until now. His wife is worried that he might be having a stroke. He reports having smoked a pack of cigarettes each day for 45 years.
Answer:
You should check their right legs and all body areas, so give the guy an CT test.
Explanation:
CT test is a thing which lets scan your bodies.
A nurse is assessing a client's abdomen who reports stomach pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Auscultate B. Percuss C. Inspect D. Palpate
When assessing a client's abdomen who reports stomach pain, the nurse should first inspect the abdomen for any visible signs of swelling, discoloration, or distention.
This will give the nurse a general idea of what may be causing the pain. After inspecting, the nurse should then auscultate the abdomen to listen for bowel sounds. This will help determine if there is any blockage or if the pain is caused by something else. After auscultating, the nurse should then percuss the abdomen to assess for any areas of tenderness or discomfort. Lastly, the nurse should palpate the abdomen to feel for any masses, enlarged organs, or areas of tenderness. However, it is important to note that if the client is experiencing severe abdominal pain, the nurse should assess for signs of an emergency such as distended or rigid abdomen, fever, nausea/vomiting, or difficulty breathing, and take appropriate action accordingly.
Option C is the correct answer of this question.
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If a drug contains 50 milligrams/5 milliliters of medication, how many milligrams are contained in 1 tablespoon of medication?
Answer:
150 milligrams
Explanation:
1 U.S tbsp contains roughly 15 milliliters.
So 5x3 = 15 milliliters 50x3=150 milligrams.
?
Approximately 147.9 milligrams are contained in 1 tablespoon of medication.
To determine the number of milligrams in 1 tablespoon of medication, we need to know the conversion factor between milliliters and tablespoons. Typically, 1 tablespoon is equal to approximately 14.79 milliliters.
Given that the drug concentration is 50 milligrams/5 milliliters, we can set up a proportion to find the amount in 1 tablespoon:
(50 milligrams / 5 milliliters) = (x milligrams / 14.79 milliliters)
Cross-multiplying and solving for x, we get:
x = (50 milligrams / 5 milliliters) * 14.79 milliliters
x ≈ 147.9 milligrams
Therefore, approximately 147.9 milligrams are contained in 1 tablespoon of medication.
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The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) must be maintained at 50 mm Hg to ensure adequate blood flow to the brain. T or F?
The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) must be maintained at 50 mm Hg to ensure adequate blood flow to the brain. The given statement is true because it is important to avoid ischemia or brain tissue damage
Cerebral perfusion pressure is a crucial factor in maintaining adequate blood flow to the brain, as it represents the pressure gradient driving blood into the cerebral circulation, it is calculated by subtracting the intracranial pressure (ICP) from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). A CPP of 50 mm Hg is considered the minimum threshold necessary to maintain sufficient blood flow to the brain and avoid ischemia or brain tissue damage. When CPP falls below this threshold, the brain may not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, potentially leading to severe consequences such as cognitive dysfunction, stroke, or even death.
It is important to maintain an optimal CPP to ensure the brain receives adequate blood flow, allowing it to function properly and maintain overall health. However, excessively high CPP can also be harmful, as it may increase the risk of cerebral edema and intracranial hemorrhage. Therefore, a balance must be achieved to maintain optimal cerebral perfusion and avoid complications. The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) must be maintained at 50 mm Hg to ensure adequate blood flow to the brain, the given statement is true because it is important to avoid ischemia or brain tissue damage.
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A state of bodily tension, such as hunger or thirst, that arises from an unmet need. it is called___
A state of bodily tension, such as hunger or thirst, that arises from an unmet need is called a drive. A drive is defined as a stimulus that arises from an unmet physiological requirement.
The physiological requirement is a requirement that, if fulfilled, will reduce the stimulus to a more normal level. Drives are frequently classified as primary, secondary, and tertiary drives. Primary drives are caused by the need for survival, such as hunger, thirst, and shelter.
Secondary drives, on the other hand, are learned behaviours that have been linked to primary drives. Tertiary drives are the result of complex interactions between primary and secondary drives, as well as external stimuli. Drives serve as a motivator for individuals to act in a particular manner, such as finding food or water to satisfy their hunger or thirst.
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if an inmate claims to be on a specific medication, what should be checked with the inmate's physician? (9.1.5)
Check the accuracy of the inmate's claim by contacting the inmate's physician to verify the medication information.
When an inmate claims to be on a specific medication, it is crucial to verify the accuracy of their statement to ensure proper medical care and treatment. The nurse or healthcare provider should reach out to the inmate's physician to confirm the medication information.
Verifying the medication details with the inmate's physician is essential for several reasons. Firstly, it ensures that the medical claim is accurate, as inmates may sometimes provide incorrect or outdated information. It also allows the healthcare provider to confirm the prescribed dosage, frequency, and any specific instructions or precautions associated with the medication.
Additionally, contacting the inmate's physician helps establish a collaborative relationship between the healthcare provider and the prescribing doctor.
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The med term -trophy means which of the following?
one
tension
Development
weakness
Answer: I believe it is Weakness
Dr Sabooh, a faculty member in a medical college, showed no inclination towards academic growth and progression and often showed temper outbursts, criticized others and was resistant to any innovations. Now after 15 years, he remains a lecturer whereas his juniors have been promoted to senior posts. In his opinion, there was only a meagre difference between his salary and other postgraduates. The Dean denounced contract renewal of fcaulty members who showed no professional advancement in last 10 years. Sabooh was now worried, on the advice of his friends he joined an MS program. Now after 3 years, he held an MS degree, became an author of few publications and finally got promoted! His self-esteem took a boost and there was a noticeable pleasant change in his personality. Apply learning theories on Sabooh's progression.
Answer:
Behaviorism, Cognitivism and 21st Century skills.
Explanation:
Behaviorism, Cognitivism and 21st Century skills are the learning theories which is apply on Sabooh's progression because the behaviour is changed due to fulfilling the course. Dr. Sabooh learns the skills of 21st Century which is used for the teaching of students at school. These skills are important for the career of the students as well as provide easiness, more explanation and description to the question.
Give an example of a 2 x 2 matrix game with exactly three nash equilibria in pure strategies. Explain.
Answer:
A Nash equilibrium is a profile of strategies (s1,s2) such that the strategies are best responses to each other, i.e., no player can do strictly better by deviating. This helps us to find the (pure strategy) Nash equilibria.
To start, we find the best response for player 1 for each of the strategies player 2 can play. I will demonstrate this by underlining the best responses:
ABCA1–,10,101–,−10B10–––,01,11,10C−10,110–––,11,1
Player 1 is the row player, player 2 is the column player. If 2 plays column A, then player 1's best response is to play either row A or C, which gives him 1 rather than 0 as payoff. Similarly, the best response to column B is row A, and to column C it is row B.
Now we do the same for player 2 by underlining the best responses of the column player:
ABCA1–,1–0,10–––1–,−10B10–––,01,11,10–––C−10,1–10–––,11,1
So, if player 1 plays row A then player 2 best responds either with column A or column C, giving him 1 rather than 0. We also find the best responses for row B and C.
Now a pure strategy Nash equilibrium is a cell where both payoffs are underlined, i.e., where both strategies are best responses to each other. In the example, the unique pure strategy equilibrium is (A,A). (There may also be mixed strategy equilibria.) In all other cells, at least one player has an incentive to deviate (because it gives him a higher payoff).
EDIT: How to compute mixed strategy equilibria in discrete games?
In a mixed Nash strategy equilibrium, each of the players must be indifferent between any of the pure strategies played with positive probability. If this were not the case, then there is a profitable deviation (play the pure strategy with higher payoff with higher probability).
Consider player 2. He plays column A with probability p, B with probability q, and C with probability 1−p−q. We need to find p,q such that player 1 is indifferent between his pure strategies A,B,C. He is indifferent between row A (left hand side) and row B (right hand side) if p,q are such that
p+10q−10(1−q−p)=q+10(1−p−q).
He is indifferent between B and C if
q+10(1−p−q)=p+q+1−q−p=1.
You just have to solve the first condition for q as function of p, substitute q in the second condition and you have p. Inserting p again in the first gives you q.
Now we do the same with strategies for player 1 such that player 2 is indifferent. Player 1 plays A with probability x, B with probability y and C with probability 1−x−y. The two conditions that follow are
1x+10y−10(1−x−y)=x+10(1−x−y)x+10(1−x−y)=1
Solve this again to find x,y. This is a mixed-strategy equilibrium, because neither player has a profitable deviation. Remember, we constructed the profile (x,y;p,q) such that the other player is indifferent between his pure strategies. So, no matter how the other player unilaterally deviates, his expected payoff will be identical to that in equilibrium (x,y;p,q). In general, depending on the game and solutions x,y,p,q, there may be infinitely many mixed Nash equilibria, or none. The more pure strategies there are, the more tedious it is to compute mixed strategy equilibria, since we solve for N−1 variables for each player (N being the number of pure strategies of the other player).
Moreover, to find all equilibria, if there are more than 2 actions for a player, then every possible combination of actions has to be checked. Here, a player has 3 actions, and a mixed strategy equilibrium could entail mixing over all three or just any two of them. Since such a player would not have to be indifferent regarding the strategy played with probability 0, the equations you have to set up are different. In summary, manually checking for all possible mixed strategy equilibria if at least one player has more than two actions can require a lot of effort.
mark me brainliest
follow
please I am in class five so teach me five things
Answer:
Explanation:
Brown spelled backwords is n word.
Amongus is dead
we live in a pendemic
tik toc is cancer
and lastly.
the end
The nurse provides instructions to a client who is prescribed bromocriptine for hyperpituitarism. Which statement made by the client indicates effective learning? Select all that apply.
"I should take the drug with a meal."
"I should avoid the drug if I get pregnant."
"I should report immediately if I experience chest pain."
all responses may be correct.
All of the statements provided by the client are correct and indicate effective learning. It is important for the nurse to ensure that the client understands the proper use of the medication, the potential side effects, and the importance of reporting any adverse reactions to their healthcare provider.
The first statement, "I should take the drug with a meal," is a correct statement and indicates effective learning. Bromocriptine should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Therefore, this statement is correct and indicates that the client understands the importance of taking the medication with food.
The second statement, "I should avoid the drug if I get pregnant," is also a correct statement and indicates effective learning. Bromocriptine is contraindicated in pregnancy, and it is important for the client to understand this. Therefore, this statement is correct and indicates that the client understands the importance of avoiding the medication if they become pregnant.
The third statement, "I should report immediately if I experience chest pain," is also a correct statement and indicates effective learning. Bromocriptine has been associated with rare cases of myocardial infarction, and chest pain may be a symptom of this. Therefore, it is important for the client to report any chest pain immediately to their healthcare provider. This statement is correct and indicates that the client understands the importance of reporting any chest pain.
In conclusion, all of the statements provided by the client are correct and indicate effective learning. It is important for the nurse to ensure that the client understands the proper use of the medication, the potential side effects, and the importance of reporting any adverse reactions to their healthcare provider.
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what is the substance required to cleave the vector dna during recombinant dna technology?
cleaving the DNA with a RESTRICTION ENZYME
The first step in the development of recombinant DNA technology was the characterization of restriction endonucleases.
What is DNA?
DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is a complicated molecule that carries all of the information required to construct and maintain an organism. DNA is found in the cells of all living things. In fact, practically every cell in a multicellular creature contains the entirety of the organism's DNA.
However, DNA does more than just specify the structure and function of living things; it is also the primary unit of heredity in all organisms. To put it another way, when organisms reproduce, a portion of their DNA is passed down to their offspring.
DNA stores information as a code composed of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA is made up of approximately 3 billion bases, with more than 99 percent of those bases being the same in all humans. The order, or sequence, of these bases defines the information accessible for constructing and maintaining an organism, in the same way that letters of the alphabet occur in a specific order to make words and phrases.
The characterization of restriction endonucleases—enzymes that break DNA at specified sequences—was the initial step in the creation of recombinant DNA technology. These enzymes were discovered in bacteria, where they appear to protect the cell from the introduction of foreign DNA (e.g., from a virus).
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What are the ways to regulate blood pressure ?!
Answer:
Lose extra pounds and watch your waistline. Blood pressure often increases as weight increases.
Exercise regularly.
Eat a healthy diet.
Reduce sodium in your diet.
Limit the amount of alcohol you drink.
Quit smoking.
Cut back on caffeine.
Reduce your stress.
Explanation:
These are just some ideas!
Brainliest? Hope this helped?
DISCUSSION1. What role does the hospital nurse play in facilitating end-of-life care for Zachary?
Answer: To provide care that includes the promotion of comfort, relief of pain and other symptoms, and support for patients, families, and others close to the patient
Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids and androgens are:
You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should:
Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
which of the following may contribute to dehydration in a premature infant? a. hypoglycemia b. hypercholesterolemia c. hyperglycemia d. hypervolemia
Answer: Hyperglycemia
Explanation: because when you have too much sugar and you crave water. You feel dehydrated.
which of the following best describes an example of negative feedback regulation in the endocrine system?
Examples that best illustrate the regulation of negative feedback in the endocrine system are the maintenance of homeostasis and the regulation of hormone secretion.
What is the endocrine system?The endocrine system is a network of glands that produce and release hormones. This hormone helps control many important functions, including the ability to convert calories into energy that is used to carry out the functions of all cells and organs of the body.
The endocrine system influences heart rate, bone and tissue growth, and even the ability to reproduce. In hormone production, the endocrine system has negative feedback such as maintaining homeostasis and regulating hormone secretion.
The question is incomplete, maybe the meaning of your question is:
Which of the following best describes an example of negative feedback regulation in the endocrine system?
Maintenance of homeostasis and regulation of hormone secretion.Reducing the risk of hormonal disorders.Learn more about endocrine system function here :
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Stellate reticulum appears at the beginning of cap stage
True or false?
Corporate compliance programs help an organization: (Click on all that apply).
Prevent violations of the law
Detect violations of the law
O Correct violations of the law
O Retaliate against reporters
Answer: Correct violation of the law
aβ peptides can negatively regulate various steps of acetylcholine (ach) synthesis, release, and signaling. which of the following would be the best target for pharmacological intervention?
The best target for pharmacological intervention to counteract the negative regulation of acetylcholine (ACh) synthesis, release, and signaling by Aβ peptides would be enzymes involved in ACh synthesis.
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in various cognitive functions, including memory and learning. Aβ peptides, which are associated with Alzheimer's disease, have been shown to disrupt ACh-related processes. To counteract this negative regulation, targeting enzymes involved in ACh synthesis can be an effective pharmacological strategy.
One such enzyme is choline acetyltransferase (ChAT), which catalyzes the synthesis of ACh by transferring an acetyl group from acetyl-CoA to choline. By enhancing the activity or expression of ChAT, pharmacological intervention can increase ACh synthesis, leading to improved ACh availability for release and signaling.
Targeting ACh synthesis enzymes provides a direct approach to address the negative regulation caused by Aβ peptides. By increasing ACh levels, it may be possible to mitigate the detrimental effects of Aβ peptides on ACh-related processes and potentially improve cognitive function in conditions such as Alzheimer's disease.
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A medical assistant who tells a patient that another physician is incompetent is an example of ________.
Answer:
Defamation of character
Explanation:
A medical assistant who tells a patient that another physician is incompetent is an example of Defamation of character.
Defamation - communicating false statements about a person that injure the reputation of that person
~Lenvy~
The client states that prior to exams at school, the client has abdominal cramping and diarrhea. what does the nurse suspect is the trigger for these signs and symptoms?
The nurse should suspect a functional diarrhea disorder as a trigger for the symptoms.
What is functional diarrhea disorder?Functional diarrhea (FD), one of the functional gastrointestinal disorders, is characterized by chronic or recurrent diarrhea not explained by structural or biochemical abnormalities.
The treatment of Functional diarrhea (FD) is intimately associated with establishing the correct diagnosis.
Thus, from the information given we can conclude that the client is describing functional diarrhea disorder where the diarrhea occurs as a result of stress or anxiety.
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question 7 please help you get brianlest!
Answer:
40≥3(2.47+3.5)+5.66x
Explanation:
This could be a possible inequality for this situation, since Rosa only has $40 to spend and can't go over that amount, so it should be equal to or 40 should be greater than. The amount spent on popcorn, candy, and tickets has to be less than the amount of money Rosa has, $40.
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The physician has ordered Tigan (trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. On hand you have a 20 mL vial that contains 100 mg/mL. How many mL will you give?
Answer:.5
Explanation:
The physician has ordered Tigan ( trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. On hand if i have 20 ml vial that contain 100 mg/ml than 5 ml of Tigan is given to the patient.
What is tigan ( trimethobenzamide) ?Tigan (Trimethobenzamide) is an antiemetic suggested for the treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting, and for nausea associated with gastroenteritis.
The condition in which tigan is discontinued in the case in which lack of efficacy.
The mechanism of action of Tigan is determined in animals is obscure, but may involve the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), an area in the medulla oblongata through which emetic impulses are conveyed to the vomiting centre.
Therefore,the physician has ordered Tigan ( trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. The condition in which tigan is discontinued in the case in which lack of efficacy. On hand if i have 20 ml vial that contain 100 mg/ml than 5 ml of Tigan is given to the patient.
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the nurse is educating unlicensed assistive personnel about recording output for a client. what fluids should the nurse include in the output for accuracy? select all that apply.
The nurse should include all body fluids in the output for accuracy when educating unlicensed assistive personnel about recording output for a client.
These fluids include urine, stool, vomit, sputum, wound drainage, and sweat. Urine output should be measured in milliliters and recorded for each shift. Stool should be measured in grams and recorded for each shift as well. Vomit should be measured in milliliters and recorded for each episode. Sputum should be measured in milliliters and recorded for each episode. Wound drainage should be measured in milliliters and recorded for each shift. Lastly, sweat should be measured in grams and recorded for each shift.
It is important to provide accurate output recording to ensure the patient's safety and wellbeing. Accurate output measurements can help identify underlying medical issues such as dehydration and fluid imbalances. Accurate output recording can also alert the healthcare team to other problems such as electrolyte imbalances, infection, and changes in the patient's condition.
In conclusion, the nurse should include all body fluids in the output for accuracy when educating unlicensed assistive personnel about recording output for a client. These fluids include urine, stool, vomit, sputum, wound drainage, and sweat. It is important to provide accurate output recording to ensure the patient's safety and wellbeing.
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Experimenters arranged for participants to experience subliminal recordings designed
to help them lose weight. According to the research, the recordings will
a. interfere with the participants' capacity for sensory adaptation
O b. have no more impact on participants' weight than a placebo
O c. improve participants' capacity for auditory transduction
O d. have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' eating habits
An experiment is a scientific procedure aimed at testing a hypothesis. The hypothesis is a plausible explanation of some aspect of the real world that must be confirmed or rejected by using the scientific method.
According to the research, the recordings will have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' eating habits (Option d).In this case, the hypothesis is that recordings will have a positive impact on eating habits.An experiment is a scientific procedure that is used for the collection of empirical evidence.Subsequently, this empirical evidence is then used to test (either support or reject) the working hypothesis.Learn more in:
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