A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office. Her father reports that she suddenly became pale and stopped running while he had been playfully chasing her and her pet Chihuahua. After 30 minutes, she was no longer pale and wanted to resume the game. She has never had a previous episode and has never been cyanotic. Her physical examination was normal as were her chest x-ray and echocardiogram. An ECG showed the pattern seen on the next page, which indicates which of the following?


a. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia

b. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

c. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

d. Stokes-Adams pattern

e. Excessive stress during play

Answers

Answer 1

The ECG pattern shown in the case of the 4-year-old girl indicates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). This condition is characterized by episodes of rapid heart rate.

The ECG pattern shown in the case is consistent with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). PSVT is a type of arrhythmia characterized by rapid heart rate originating from above the ventricles. It commonly presents with sudden-onset episodes of tachycardia that can resolve spontaneously or with intervention.

In this case, the girl's symptoms of sudden pallor and cessation of activity during play followed by a return to normal color and desire to resume the game are typical of PSVT episodes. PSVT can cause a transient decrease in blood flow to the body, leading to symptoms like pallor and fatigue.

The ECG pattern seen in PSVT typically shows a narrow QRS complex, indicating that the electrical impulse is being conducted through the normal pathway. In contrast, conditions like paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia or Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome would typically show abnormal QRS complex morphology.

Therefore, based on the presented information and the ECG findings, the most likely diagnosis for the girl's condition is paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT).

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Related Questions

What effect of sodium bicarbonate is the nurse trying to prevent? 1. Gastric distension 2. Metabolic alkalosis 3. Chronic constipation 4. Cardiac dysrhythmias

Answers

Metabolic alkalosis is the effect of sodium bicarbonate which the nurse trying to prevent. Option 2 is correct.

Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic disorder in which the pH of tissue exceeds the normal range (7.35–7.45). The term "responsible stewardship" refers to the act of stewarding a body of water, which includes the use of a stewardship vehicle. If the kidneys are functioning properly, the condition should not last long.

Mild instances of metabolic alkalosis sometimes go undetected. Abnormal sensations, neuromuscular irritability, tetany, abnormal heart rhythms (usually due to accompanying electrolyte abnormalities such as low potassium levels in the blood), coma, seizures, and temporary waxing and waning confusion are typical manifestations of moderate to severe metabolic alkalosis.

The complete question is:

A nurse teaches a client about the dangers of using sodium bicarbonate regularly. What effect of sodium bicarbonate is the nurse trying to prevent?

1. Gastric distention2. Metabolic alkalosis3.Chronic constipation4. Cardiac dysrhythmias

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Kiley is suffering from muscle spasms. Which commonly prescribed drug should she take?

a. anticonvulsant
b. steroid
c. muscle relaxant
d. antihistamine

Answers

Answer:

c. muscle relaxant

Explanation:

Because she suffers from muscle spasms

what is soil erosion​

Answers

Answer:

★ It is a process in which the top fertile layer of soil is lost. Due to soil erosion, the soil becomes less fertile. The top layer of soil is very light which is easily carried away by wind and water. The removal of topsoil by the natural forces is known as soil erosion.

Explanation:

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Which of the following could be reasonably concluded if a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing?


The sow may have a stillborn piglet in her uterus.

The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.

The farrowing process has come to a conclusion.

The sow is about to expel her placenta.

Answers

Answer: The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.

Explanation:

Farrowing is a term that simply has to do with the action by which pigs give birth. Another term for farrowing is parturition.

As farrowing approaches, it should be noted that the the vulva and the vagina will enlarge which leads to the opening into the womb. When a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing, the first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.

all of the areas belong to the _______ hemisphere of the______

Answers

Answer:

The Antarctic is a cold, remote area in the Southern Hemisphere encompassed by the Antarctic Convergence

all of the areas belong to the long line hemisphere of the long line

34. Which is NOT a hazard of immobility?
a. Pneumonia
b. Diabetes
c. Contractures
d. Bed sore

Answers

Answer: C. contractures

discuss how the theory might be used to support nursing practice (clinical, education, or administration).

Answers

Answer: Your welcome!

Explanation:

In nursing practice, the Theory of Human Caring can be used to support clinical, educational, and administrative practice. In clinical practice, it can be used to help nurses understand their patients and provide holistic care that is tailored to the individual. It can be used to help nurses recognize and address the emotional and spiritual needs of their patients, as well as their physical needs. In educational practice, it can be used to help nurses understand the importance of holistic care and to help them develop their own individualized approach to caring for their patients. In administrative practice, it can be used to help nurses lead and manage their teams more effectively by creating a culture of caring and respect. Ultimately, the Theory of Human Caring can help nurses to provide better, more compassionate, and more meaningful care.

The theory that is being discussed can be used to support nursing practice in a variety of ways including clinical practice, education, and administration.

First, it can be used to support clinical practice by providing a framework for understanding patient behavior and decision-making. It emphasizes the importance of patient autonomy.

Second, the theory can be used to support nursing education by providing a basis for curriculum development and teaching methods. It emphasizes the importance of evidence-based practice.

Finally, the theory can be used to support nursing administration by providing a framework for developing policies and procedures. It emphasizes the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration.

Overall, the theory can be used to support nursing practice in a variety of ways, including clinical practice, education, and administration. By using the theory to guide practice, nurses can provide better care to patients and improve the quality of healthcare delivery.

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Sally is 55 years old and just been diagnosed with type2 diabetes. She as a family history of diabetes but she thought she was living healthy. She is 5.7 tall and 195 pounds weight. What concerns should she have moving forward? What aspect of lifestyle are going to need to change immediately and long-term
Planning change
Stages change
Risk factors for disease
Lifestyle changes
Rationale for choice making

Answers

Answer:

Sally's diagnosis of type 2 diabetes puts her at risk for several complications, such as heart disease, nerve damage, kidney damage, and eye damage. She should be concerned about managing her blood sugar levels to avoid these complications. In the short-term, Sally will need to change her diet and exercise habits to manage her blood sugar levels. Long-term, she will need to maintain a healthy lifestyle and monitor her blood sugar levels regularly.

Explanation:

Lifestyle changes refer to the modifications a person makes to their diet, exercise, and other habits to improve their health. Sally will need to make changes to her lifestyle to manage her diabetes, such as reducing her intake of sugar and refined carbohydrates, increasing her consumption of fruits and vegetables, and engaging in regular physical activity.

A 32 year old patient presents to the emergency room with pain and limited movement of his left wrist after being injured in a non traffic accident while driving a forklift what is the medical code

Answers

A 32 year old patient presents to the emergency room with pain and limited movement of his left wrist after being injured in a non traffic accident while driving a forklift therefore the medical code is M25. 532.

What is Medical coding?

This is defined as the process in which medical diagnosis, treatment etc are translated into numeric and alphanumeric characters in other to prevent ambiguity in the healthcare system.

This coding system helps to make work more efficient and faster as a result if the reduction in errors and stress used to find the necessary paperwork needed by different professionals.

The updated ICD-10 code for pain in left wrist is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range called arthropathies and it is denoted as M25. 532 which is therefore the treason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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. Discuss two factors that contribute to the rising cost of chronic disease prevention. -17 Points

Answers

The rising cost of chronic disease prevention can be attributed to several factors, two of which are - Advances in medical technology and research and Lifestyle factors.

The cost of prevention has gone up as a result of advances in medical technology and research, which have also improved the diagnosis, treatment, and management of chronic diseases. The cost of new technologies and treatments is frequently higher, which makes it challenging for people and healthcare systems to afford.

Lifestyle factors: By making modifications to your diet, exercise routine, and smoking habits, you can reduce your risk of developing many chronic diseases. However, implementing these adjustments can be difficult for people, and assistance from healthcare professionals, neighbourhood groups, and other resources may be necessary.

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explain why a scientist must conduct trials in humans before this procedure becomes a widespread medical treatment​

Answers

Answer:

testing on animals and on humans are different

Explanation:

If the testing through animals and/or artificial means turns out well and safe, then it is safe for human testing to work out how it will affect humans since we have a different physiology from animals.

Answer:

Scientists need to repeat studies many times to prove their hypothesis. This single study only shows an effect in mice. The effect in humans may differ, so scientists need to conduct trials in humans to see whether the results are the same.

Explanation:

i got it from the official site where the question originated from, it was the sample answer, youre welcome, and thank you to the person below/above my answer, because their question is also right. <3

Are tranquilizers used to relieve anxiety and tension?

Answers

A medication that is used to treat mental disorders such as anxiety, dread, tension, and agitation. There are two primary categories of tranquilizers: major and minor.

ANSWER -


Yes, tranquilizers are commonly used to relieve anxiety and tension. However, it is important to note that these medications should only be taken under the guidance of a healthcare professional, as they can have potentially dangerous side effects if not used correctly.

what is the difference between code sets when submitting electronic claims?

Answers

Answer:

It is important that the medical coder puts in the correct code when submitting claims. It is important because the codes show what the patient is seen for and what the doctor does during the procedure or office visit. If the coder puts in the wrong code set, the patient could be misdiagnosed to their insurer or charged unfairly. Each visit, procedure, lab test, etc has their own code set to abide by. The coder should have software that enables them to check over their codes before the final submission. During the process of submitting electronic claims, HIPPA law must followed and the patients privacy should always be kept as the number one priority.

Explanation:

a client is scheduled for a colon resection and has a history of diabetes. what risk factors will this client have and nutritionally how will her postoperative diet be managed?

Answers

Diabetic patients scheduled for a colon resection are at higher risk of postoperative complications. It is important for them to maintain good blood sugar control, follow a healthy diet, and avoid high-fiber and spicy foods to promote healing.

A client with diabetes who is scheduled for a colon resection is at a greater risk of postoperative complications than a client without diabetes. Patients with diabetes have an increased risk of postoperative complications, including wound infections and poor wound healing. Poor blood sugar control and poor nutrition are possible reasons for this.

In addition, because diabetic patients have a high risk of neuropathy and cardiovascular disease, they have a higher risk of developing complications related to the heart and nerves. Patients are expected to start a clear liquid diet before their colon resection. After the operation, patients should progress to a full liquid diet, followed by a low-fiber diet and a regular diet. It is important for the patient to follow a healthy diet to promote healing after the surgery.

After a colon resection, a patient with diabetes will require a diet high in carbohydrates to keep their blood sugar levels stable. Small, frequent meals can also help to prevent large fluctuations in blood sugar levels. To promote healing, a patient's diet should be rich in vitamins and minerals. In the first few weeks following the operation, the patient should avoid high-fiber and spicy foods to reduce the risk of developing diarrhea and cramps.

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you believe a victim may have a flail chest. what is the next care step you should take?

Answers

The next care step you should take if you suspect a victim may have a flail chest is to call 911.

Flail chest is a serious medical condition where a segment of the rib cage becomes detached from the rest of the chest wall, causing instability and impairing normal breathing. It is considered a medical emergency that requires immediate professional medical attention.

While the other options listed may be relevant in certain situations, calling 911 is the most critical step because flail chest requires specialized medical intervention. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are trained to provide the necessary treatment and transportation to a healthcare facility equipped to handle the condition.

Once emergency services have been activated, they will assess the victim's condition, provide appropriate care, and transport the individual to a hospital for further evaluation and treatment. Prompt medical attention is crucial in managing flail chest to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the victim.

The complete question is:

You believe a victim may have a flail chest. What is the next care step you should take?

- Call 911

- Have the victim sit in a position for easiest breathing

- Position the victim lying on his or her injured side to give more support to the flail area

- Splint the flail area with a small pillow or thick padding loosely bandaged in place

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how many calories are required in the first trimester of pregnancy for a healthy young woman whose energy requirement is 2300 kcal/day before becoming pregnant?

Answers

The recommended daily calorie intake for pregnant women during the first trimester is an extra 300 to 400 calories per day.

This means that a healthy young woman who requires 2300 kcal/day before becoming pregnant would now need 2600-2700 kcal/day during her first trimester. It is important to note that these extra calories should come from nutrient-dense foods such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and low-fat dairy. As the pregnancy progresses, the calorie requirement may increase further.

It is important for pregnant women to be aware of the recommended daily calorie intake during each trimester and to make sure they are getting the right amount of nutrients. Eating a healthy and balanced diet is important for both mother and baby as it helps to ensure that the body is getting all the essential vitamins and minerals it needs.

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5
Select the correct answer.
Cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby's cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby’s visual development. Which is the best way for her to do that?
A. by letting the baby watch television programs
B. by exposing the baby to fast moving objects
C. by limiting the baby's exposure to bright colors
D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors

Answers

Answer:

D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors

Explanation:

Newborns find high contrast colors easier to pick out.

They cannot see far away (more than 30 cm), so answer A is incorrect. Newborn sight is fuzzy and they are just learning to track objects with their eyes, so answer B is also incorrect.

Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.

Answers

The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.

What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?

In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.

Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.

Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen.  Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.

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if you clean out the vacuum, are you the vacuum cleaner?

Answers

Answer:

no

Explanation:

Answer:

YES if want to be anything it happened with your imagination

Fill in the blank: after a prolonged period of stress, norepinephrine sends ____ an inhibitory message that stops their activity, slowing down immune functioning.

Answers

Norepinephrine inhibits T cells' activity after an extended period of stress by sending them a message, which slows immunological activity.

The sympathetic nervous system, which controls the "fight or flight" reaction to stress, releases the neurotransmitter norepinephrine. The body's norepinephrine levels may remain elevated during a protracted stressful time, which may harm the immune system.

Norepinephrine affects the immune system in a number of ways, one of which is its capacity to communicate inhibitory signals to T cells, a class of white blood cells that are crucial to immunological defense. Norepinephrine activates a signaling pathway that reduces the activation of T lymphocytes when it interacts to certain receptors on those cells.

Overall, a key mechanism through which ongoing stress might harm the immune system is the inhibitory action of norepinephrine on T cells.

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A doctor gives some of the patients a new drug for treating acne and the rest of the patients receive the old drug. Neither the patient nor the doctor knows who is getting which drug. Is this a blind experiment, double blind experiment, or neither? Why?

Answers

In a double-blind experiment, neither the patients nor the doctor knows which patients are receiving the new drug and which patients are receiving the old drug.

This is designed to minimize the effects of bias and ensure that any observed differences between the two groups are due to the effects of the drug, rather than other factors such as the patients' expectations . In contrast, a blind experiment involves the drug being administered to the patients, but the doctor or researcher administering the drug is not told.

which patients are receiving the new drug and which patients are receiving the old drug. This is designed to eliminate the possibility of the doctor or researcher influencing the results through their knowledge of which patients are receiving which drug. In this scenario, both the patients and the doctor are blinded.

which means that neither group knows which patients are receiving the new drug and which patients are receiving the old drug. This ensures that the results of the experiment are based solely on the effects of the drug, rather than on other factors such as the patients' expectations or the doctor's influence.

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Need help with the entire thing (Will Mark Brainliest)

Need help with the entire thing (Will Mark Brainliest)

Answers

Answer: A. She is experiencing symptoms from a perforated eardrum

Explanation: Accept: A. It is possible that the student is experiencing symptoms of a perforated eardrum, which could result from exposure to loud noises at the nightclub where she works as a DJ. A perforated eardrum can cause hearing problems, including difficulty hearing high-pitched tones.

Reject:

B. She is experiencing symptoms from otitis media - Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, but it typically causes pain and pressure in the ear, rather than hearing problems.

C. She is experiencing symptoms from damage to structures in the inner ear - This is a possible explanation for the symptoms she is experiencing, but it is not the most probable explanation.

D. She is experiencing symptoms of otosclerosis - Otosclerosis is a condition that affects the bones in the middle ear, but it typically causes progressive hearing loss and is not usually associated with sudden hearing problems.

E. What she is experiencing is quite normal and she should not worry about it - This is not a likely explanation for the student's symptoms, as hearing problems, especially those related to exposure to loud noises, should be taken seriously and evaluated by a healthcare provider.

metabolism/Explain the differences between the Hexokinase and Glucokinase enzymes? *

Your answer

Back

Submit


Answers

Answer:

Glucokinase and Hexokinase are enzymes which phosphorylate glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, trapping glucose inside the cell. ... Hexokinase is found in most tissues. Compared to glucokinase, hexokinase has a lower Km (higher binding affinity) and lower Vmax (lower capacity).

Hexokinase is found in most tissues, has a lower Km, and is not induced by insulin, but does undergo negative feedback inhibition by glucose 6 phosphate

Explanation:

what are the likely effects of a significant drop in blood glucose levels?

Answers

The "fight-or-flight" hormone, epinephrine (adrenaline), is released when blood glucose levels are low. The hypoglycemic symptoms, such as racing heart, perspiration, tingling, and anxiety, can be brought on by epinephrine.

What occurs if blood glucose levels drop below the recommended 5 points?

When blood sugar levels are extremely low, both physical and mental changes take place, making it impossible for the person to operate. They may get seizures and lose consciousness. Hypoglycemia is a word used in medicine to describe when a person has too little blood glucose (sugar).

What consequences does hypoglycemia have in the long run?

Following a hypoglycemic episode, autonomic activation may be accompanied by a variety of symptoms, ranging from palpitations and sweating to convulsions and cognitive impairment. Depending on its severity and duration, hypoglycemia can cause a coma or even death.

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is considered healthy in terms of its effect on blood cholesterol, while ____ is considered unhealthy

Answers

Answer:

MONOUNSATURATED FAT is considered healthy in terms of its effect on blood cholesterol, while TRANS FAT is considered unhealthy.

Explanation:

Monounsaturated fat, in nutrition, is a fatty acid with a double bond in the molecule. The best known monounsaturated fats are those of Omega 9, like natural oils. These foods are beneficial for health, as they reduce the level of cholesterol in the blood, thereby improving the functioning of the blood and heart systems.

In turn, trans fat is a type of unsaturated fat that is neither necessary for the body nor good for health. On the contrary, trans fats have been found to increase the risk of developing coronary heart disease and cancer.

The brain is the seat of _______________ and _______________.

Answers

the seat of intelligence and control voluntary actions

The first period of rapid bone growth is
A) during fetal development.
B) from birth to age 2.
C) from age 2 through age 5.
D) during adolescence.
Answer: B) from birth to age 2.

Answers

The first period of rapid bone growth occurs during the first two years of life. Hence option b is correct. During this time, bones increase in both length and width, and the body's skeleton is constructed.

This period of rapid bone growth is essential for proper development and growth throughout life . At birth, babies are born with 300 bones, which will eventually fuse together and form 206 bones in the adult body. Most of the bones in the human body form during the first few years of life. During this time, bones are actively forming and growing and are particularly susceptible to environmental influences, such as nutrients and physical activity.

During the first two years of life, bones will grow at a rate of about 1 inch (2.5 cm) per month. This rapid growth gives babies the ability to reach their full height potential by the time they reach school age. During this time, calcium and phosphorus are the two most important minerals for bone growth. These minerals are found in breast milk, formula, and solid foods, and can help ensure that babies get the nutrition they need for healthy bones .Physical activity is also important for bone growth during this period. Infants and toddlers should be encouraged to explore and move around, which helps strengthen the muscles and bones. Activities such as crawling, rolling, and walking are important for proper bone development.

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A child weighing 25 Ib is to receive 4 mg of phenytoin per kg of body weight daily as an anticonvulsant. How many milliliters of pediatric phenytoin suspention containing 30 mg per 5ml should the child receive?​

Answers

About 10 ML for the young child.
About 10Ml for the child

Solve or answer the item.
The feature in electronic medical records that contains the list of care, medications,
tests, and treatment the doctor decides is necessary for the patient is called
Enter the answer.

Answers

Answer:

Patient Medication Profile

Explanation:

Patient Medication Profile is the document which contains every detail about patient.


Basal metabolic rate is lowered by:
A. stress or fever.
B. high thyroid gland activity.
C. loss of lean body mass.
D. an increase in lean body mass.

Answers

Answer:

I think it is C loss of lean body mass

The answer to the question is c
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