4. how does the intensity of a linearly polarized electromagnetic wave relate to its electric field?

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Solids, Liquids, and Gases are all make up of atoms and molecules.

Answer:

19 x 85 = 1,615 for distance. Displacement is 0

Explanation:

The total distance traveled by the ant in 9 round trips and one 1/2 trip, or 19 one bash way trips: 19 x 85cm = 1615cm. The displacement of the ant after the tenth trip is 0 cm ( the displacement origin is the nest.)

The sound wave took 1.2 seconds to travel from one whale to the other.

Velocity is a physical quantity that describes the rate of change of an object's position with respect to time and includes both the speed and direction of motion. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction and is typically measured in meters per second (m/s) or other appropriate units.

The time it took for the sound wave to travel from one whale to the other can be calculated using the formula:

time = distance/velocity

In this case, the distance between the whales is 1,800 meters and the velocity of sound in water is 1,500 meters per second. Therefore:

time = 1,800 meters / 1,500 meters per second

time = 1.2 seconds

Hence, The distance between the two whales was covered by the sound wave in 1.2 seconds.

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A ball made of iron typically sinks in water because the density of iron is greater than that of water. However, if we want to explore a scenario where an iron ball floats on water, we can consider two possible scenarios:

Hollow Iron Ball: If the iron ball is hollow, it can be designed in a way that the overall density of the ball is less than that of water. This can be achieved by adjusting the thickness and volume of the hollow portion. By making the ball buoyant, it will float on the water's surface.

Composite Ball: Another possibility is to create a composite ball using iron and materials with lower density. By combining iron with materials like foam or lightweight metals, the overall density of the ball can be reduced, allowing it to float on water.

It's important to note that both scenarios involve altering the properties of iron or combining it with other materials to achieve buoyancy. In reality, a solid iron ball would sink in water due to its high density.

The time taken to complete its first five revolutions is 1.07 seconds.

We need to know about torque to solve this problem. Torque is the rotational equivalent of linear force. It can be determined as

τ = F x r

where τ is torque, F is perpendicular force and r is radius.

Torque is also can be calculated by the moment of inertia

τ = I . α

where I is moment of inertia and α is angular acceleration.

From the question above, the parameters given are

F = 0.49 N

I = 0.000412 kgm²

d = 9.25 cm

r = 0.04625 m

N = 5 turns

Find the angular acceleration

τ = τ

I . α = F x r

0.000412 . α = 0.49 . 0.04625

α = 55.01 rad/s²

Find the displacement of total revolution (θ)

θ = N . 2π

θ = 5 . 2π

θ = 10π rad

Find the time taken

θ = 1/2 . α . t²

10π = 1/2 . 55.01 . t²

t² = 1.14

t = 1.07 seconds

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" 50 W " means " 50 Watts "  or  " 50 Joules per second ".

(500,002 J) / (50 J/sec)  =  10,000.04 seconds

(That's 2 hours 46 minutes 40.04 seconds.)

i think the answer is D 10.0

Answer:

In this case the net force is zero.

According to Newton's third law of motion: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. In this case the net force is zero.

Explanation:

Hope this helps!! :)

If a negatively charged particle is moving to the right, the current in the wire also flows to the right, then the direction of the magnetic field will be upward due to maxwell's right-hand thumb rule.

Maxwell's Right-Hand Rule of Thumb:

Following this rule, imagine grasping a live wire with your right hand, with your thumb pointing in the direction of the current. The direction in which the finger grips the wire is the magnetic field lines around the wire. The right-hand rule used to find the direction of the magnetic field due to the current element is the direction of the magnetic field.

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The distance the truck travel in given time is 216 m and the final velocity of acceleration at 0.5m/\(s^{2}\) for 30 seconds is 19 m /s

The following question has two parts

For part 1 we need to calculate the distance covered by the truck in 12 seconds

We know that

 s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}a .t^{2}\) . . . . . . .  . . . . .(1)

where s = distance travelled

           u = initial velocity

           a = acceleration

           t  =  time in seconds

Now , As per the question

u = 6 m/s

a = 2 m/\(s^{2}\)

t  = 12 seconds

Putting the values in the equation (1)

                          s = 6 X 12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) X 2 X 144

                          s = 72 + 144

                          s = 216 m

Therefore the distance travelled is 216 m

For part 2 we need to calculate the final velocity that Paco was driving

We know that

v = u + at . . . . . . . . . . .  .(2)

where v = final velocity

          u = initial velocity

          a = acceleration

           t = time in seconds

As per the question,

u = 4m/s

a = 0.5 m/\(s^{2}\)

t = 30 seconds

Putting in equation (2)

                                      v = 4 + 0.5 X 30

                                      v  =  4 + 15

                                      v = 19 m/s

Therefore the final velocity is 19 m/s

Therefore , the distance the truck travel in given time is 216 m and the final velocity of acceleration at 0.5m/\(s^{2}\) for 30 seconds is 19 m /s

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The final velocity of the scooter is 19 m/s.

Given:

Initial velocity of truck, u = 6 m/s

Acceleration of truck, a = 2 m/s²

Time taken by the truck, t = 12 s

Formula used:

s = ut + 1/2 at²

Where,

s = Distance travelled

u = Initial velocity

a = Acceleration

t = Time taken

Substituting the given values in the above formula, we get:

s = ut + 1/2 at²

 = 6(12) + 1/2 × 2 × (12)²

 = 72 + 1/2 × 2 × 144

 = 72 + 144

 = 216 m

Therefore, the truck travels 216 m in the given time.

Given:

Initial velocity of scooter, u = 4 m/s

Acceleration of scooter, a = 0.5 m/s²

Time taken by the scooter, t = 30 s

Formula used:

v = u + at

Where,

v = Final velocity

u = Initial velocity

a = Acceleration

t = Time taken

Substituting the given values in the above formula, we get:

v = u + at

 = 4 + 0.5 × 30

 = 4 + 15

 = 19 m/s

Therefore, the final velocity of the scooter is 19 m/s.

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A is the correct answer. The arrow pointing up in A represents the force of gravity (mg).

Force is an external influence that can change the motion, direction, shape, and/or energy of a physical object. It can be a push, a pull, or a twist, and it can act on an object at a distance. Force is a vector quantity, meaning that it has both magnitude and direction.

The arrow pointing to the right represents the normal force (N), which is the force that the surface exerts on the block in order to keep it from sinking into the surface due to gravity. The arrow pointing down in A represents the frictional force (f), which is the force that the surface exerts on the block in order to prevent it from sliding along the surface.

1)

T > mg

The force due to tension acts upwards on the box and the force due to gravity acts downwards on the box. As the box is accelerated upwards then the T should be greater than the weight of the box.

ma = T - mg

mg = T- ma

Therefore, T> mg

2)

The option A, best describes the free body diagram.

3) In option A, the normal force is equal to the weight of the block which is kept at rest. N = mg

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Upon increasing the temperature, the rigid bar ACB will experience thermal expansion, which may cause it to rotate. So, the correct answer is: "It will rotate around C in the clockwise direction."

As the temperature increases, the bar ACB will expand due to thermal expansion. This expansion will cause the bar to rotate around point C.

Since the expansion occurs along the length of the bar, end A will move away from C, causing the bar to rotate in a clockwise direction. The bar will not return to its original position unless the temperature is decreased, and it contracts back to its initial length.

In summary, upon temperature increase, the rigid bar ACB will rotate around point C in the clockwise direction due to thermal expansion.

So, the correct answer is: "It will rotate around C in the clockwise direction."

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Answer:

FJ = 31.48N

Explanation:

In this case you have that the torque exerted by each, thumb and finger, over the point P, is equal and opposite by the torque exerted by each Jaw.

You equal one of the torque produced by your hand, as for example, the torque of the finger, with the torque produced by one jaw:

\(\tau_F=\tau_J\\\\F_Fd_1=F_Jd_2\)         (1)

FF: finger force = 10.0N

FJ: jaw force = ?

d1: distance from finger to point P = 8.50cm = 0.085m

d2: distance form the border of the Jaws to the point P = 2.70cm = 0.027m

You solve the equation (1) for FJ and replace the values of the other parameters:

\(F_J=\frac{F_Fd_1}{d_2}=\frac{(10.0N)(0.0850m)}{0.027m}=31.48N\)

The force exerted by each jaw is 31.48N

The force that the forceps jaws exert on the plastic rod will be 31.48N.

From the information given, the following can be depicted:

Therefore, the jaw force will be calculated thus:

Fj = (Ff × d1) / d2

Fj = (10 × 0.085) / 0.027

Fj = 31.48N

Therefore, the jaw force is 31.48N.

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On the fictional planet Freya, which has the same radius as Earth, a body weighs 4 times more than it does on Earth. To determine the mass of Freya in terms of Earth's mass, we can use the concept of gravitational force.

The gravitational force acting on an object is given by the formula F = (G × m1 × m2) / r², where F is the gravitational force, G is the gravitational constant, m1 and m2 are the masses of the objects, and r is the distance between the centers of the objects.
Since the radius of Freya is the same as Earth, we can assume the distance between the object and the center of Freya is the same as the distance between the object and the center of Earth. Therefore, the distance cancels out in the equation.
Let's assume the mass of the body on Earth is me and the mass of Freya is mf. According to the problem, the weight of the body on Freya is 4 times its weight on Earth.
Weight is given by the formula W = m × g, where W is the weight, m is the mass, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. On Earth, the acceleration due to gravity is approximately 9.8 m/s².
So, we have 4me × g = mf × g.
Canceling out the acceleration due to gravity, we get 4me = mf.
Therefore, the mass of Freya (mf) is 4 times the mass of Earth (me).

In other words, the mass of Freya is 4 times the mass of Earth.
In terms of mathematical notation, we can express this as mf = 4 × me.
In conclusion, the mass of Freya is 4 times the mass of Earth.
The mass of Freya (mf) is 4 × the mass of Earth (me).

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(a) The acceleration (in m/s²) of the two blocks is 4.42 m/s².

(b) The tension (in N) in the string connecting the blocks is 63.65 N.

The acceleration of the blocks is determined by applying Newton's second law of motion as shown below.

F(net) = ma

where;

F = m₁a + m₂a

F = a(m₁ + m₂)

a = F/(m₁ + m₂)

where;

a = (153) / (14.4 + 20.2)

a = 4.42 m/s²

The tension (in N) in the string connecting the blocks is calculated as follows;

T = m₁a

T = 14.4 x 4.42

T = 63.65 N

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According to Boyle's Law, as the volume of a closed container filled with gas increases, the pressure will decrease.

According to Boyle's Law, which describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperature, the pressure of a gas will decrease as the volume of the container increases, assuming the amount of gas and temperature remain constant.

Boyle's law can be stated mathematically as:

P1 × V1 = P2 × V2

where:

P1 and V1 = initial pressure and volume of the gas

P2 and V2 = final pressure and volume of the gas.

As the volume increases (V2 > V1), the equation shows that the pressure (P2) must decrease to maintain the equality. In other words, if the volume of the container increases, the pressure will be decreased, assuming the temperature and the amount of gas remain constant.

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Note : Please discard your other answers as they are incorrect. I have personally solved this problem and have attached the appropriate image.

Have a blessed day, if you have any follow-up questions please reach out!

Stay safe!

- Robert

By carefully following these steps and recording the necessary measurements, you can estimate the magnetic force due to the external uniform magnetic field using magnets and a scale.

To measure the magnetic force due to an external uniform magnetic field using magnets and a scale, you can perform the following experiment:

Materials needed:

1. Two magnets (with known magnetic field strengths)

2. A scale (preferably a sensitive one)

3. Non-magnetic support or stand

4. String or thread

5. Ruler or measuring tape

Procedure:

1. Set up the experiment by attaching one of the magnets to a non-magnetic support or stand so that it is suspended freely.

2. Tie a string or thread to the magnet in such a way that it hangs vertically down.

3. Place the scale underneath the magnet, making sure it is directly below the magnet's center of gravity.

4. Record the initial position of the magnet on the scale.

5. Bring the other magnet, which has a known magnetic field strength, close to the suspended magnet.

6. Gradually increase the distance between the two magnets while observing any movement of the suspended magnet.

7. Take note of the position of the magnet on the scale when it reaches equilibrium (where the magnetic force and gravitational force balance out).

8. Measure the distance between the magnets using a ruler or measuring tape.

9. Repeat the experiment several times with different distances between the magnets, ensuring that the magnets and the scale are in the same orientation each time.

10. Calculate the magnetic force between the magnets using the equation for the magnetic force between two magnets, which is given by the product of their magnetic field strengths divided by the square of the distance between them.

11. Plot a graph of the magnetic force against the distance between the magnets.

12. Using the graph, extrapolate the magnetic force for a distance of 0 (when the magnets are in direct contact) to determine the magnetic force due to the external uniform magnetic field.

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Answer:

Explanation:

Kinetic energy involves motion so something that is not moving has zero kinetic energy.

Potential energy does not involve motion and is based on position in a field like gravity and magnetic.

Answer:

38500

Explanation:

I looked it up so it may be wrong

I think its a secret!!

Answer:

uhh, uhh i think it's a carrot?

nah a secret

Explanation:

Answer:

2.5 km because displacement is xf -xi

xf = 2.5

xi= 0

2.5 - 0 =2.5 km

The information illustrates that this will likely result in schema distortion.

It should be noted that schema simply means a mental model of an object that includes knowledge, beliefs, and expectations.

In this case, the information illustrates that this will likely result in schema distortion. This led to the missing details.

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Answer:

400 kN

Explanation:

El principio de Arquímedes establece que, cuando un cuerpo está total o parcialmente sumergido en un fluido, experimenta un empuje hacia arriba que es igual al peso del fluido desplazado.

Dado que;

Volumen del bloque = 80m ^ 3

Densidad del agua = 1000 kg / m ^ 3

Empuje hacia arriba = 1/2 * 80 * 1000 * 10

Empuje hacia arriba = 400 kN

a) Mutual inductance = 0.108 H; Coupling coefficient = 0.482. b) - 4.95 V.


a) Mutual inductance, M between coil A and coil B can be given as:

M = k√(L_AL_B) here, k is the coupling coefficient, L_A and L_B are the inductances of the coil A and coil B respectively. Since 54% of flux produced by coil A links coil B,

So, K = 0.54

L_A = N_A Φ/I_AL_A

= 8120 × 0.02/6

= 27.07 mH

L_B = N_B Φ/I_BL_B

= 11842 × 0.078/6

= 154.63 mH

M = k√(LALB) = 0.482 × √(27.07 × 0.15463) = 0.108 H

b) The emf induced in coil B can be given as:-

ε = M (dI_B/dt)/L_B

ε = 0.108 × (-6/0.015) / 0.15463 = -4.95 V

Thus, the emf induced in coil B when the current is reversed in 0.015 seconds is -4.95 V.

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The uterus lining is rebuilt by the end of the menstrual period. The rebuilding of the uterus lining starts after menstruation and the lining is typically completely rebuilt by day 14 of the menstrual cycle, which is when ovulation occurs and the uterus is preparing to potentially receive a fertilized egg.

The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus, and it thickens every month to prepare for pregnancy. After menstruation, the endometrium grows and thickens to prepare for the implantation of a fertilized egg. The cells in the lining multiply and enlarge, and the glands in the lining begin to secrete mucus and other substances that help support the fertilized egg and promote its growth.

The rebuilding of the endometrium usually takes about two weeks after menstruation. This process is closely regulated by hormones such as estrogen and progesterone, which are produced by the ovaries and other parts of the body. These hormones help control the growth and development of the endometrium and other reproductive tissues.

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The solution to the calculation, rounded to the proper number of significant figures, is approximately 1654 J.

To find the solution to the calculation, we need to follow the rules of significant figures and perform the arithmetic operations step by step.

Subtract the given masses: (165.43 g - 78.15 g) = 87.28 g.

Calculate the temperature difference: (297.6 K - 292.8 K) = 4.8 K.

Multiply the mass difference by the specific heat capacity and the temperature difference:

(87.28 g) × (4.184 Jg^(-1) K^(-1)) × (4.8 K) = 1653.71776 J.

Round the result to the proper number of significant figures based on the given values.

The given values have the following significant figures:

165.43 g has 5 significant figures.

78.15 g has 4 significant figures.

4.184 Jg^(-1) K^(-1) has 4 significant figures.

297.6 K has 4 significant figures.

292.8 K has 4 significant figures.

Since we are multiplying and dividing, the result should have the same number of significant figures as the value with the fewest significant figures, which is 4.

Round the result to 4 significant figures: 1653.71776 J ≈ 1654 J.

Therefore, the solution to the calculation, rounded to the proper number of significant figures, is approximately 1654 J.

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The absolute pressure in a car tire can found by following method:

Pressure is the force per unit area applied toward a course perpendicular to the outer layer of an item. To keep it precise, it is an amount of force following up on a unit area. The SI unit for pressure is measured in Pascals (Pa). Other non-SI units are bar and PSI. There are two types of references to quantify pressure,

                                 Gauge Pressure

                                 Absolute Pressure

Formula of Absolute pressure is given by:

                                       p(a) = p(g) + p(atm)

Where ,

p(a) is absolute pressure,

p(g) is gauge pressure and

P(atm) is atmospheric pressure

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Answer: the marble will remain in place at a constant velocity of zero

Explanation:

Newton's first law states that a body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion in a straight line at a constant velocityunless acted upon by an outside force