2(x+6)+3x+4=
what it equals

An ode is a type of lyrical stanza. It is an elaborately structured poem praising or glorifying an event or individual, describing nature intellectually as nicely as emotionally. A basic ode is structured in three major parts: the strophe, the antistrophe, and the epode.

Answer:

An ode is a poetic form.

Step-by-step explanation:

A type of lyrical stanza. A classic ode is structured in three major parts: the strophe, the antistrophe, and the epode.

Therefore, the probability of drawing exactly 3 aces, 2 queens, and 1 king is approximately 0.000682.

We can solve this problem using the multiplication rule for independent events. The probability of drawing a specific card from a standard deck is 1/52, since there are 52 cards in the deck and each is equally likely to be drawn. We can use this probability to find the probability of drawing a specific combination of cards.

(a) To find the probability of drawing exactly 3 aces, 2 queens, and 1 king, we can break it down into three steps:

Find the probability of drawing exactly 3 aces: There are 4 aces in the deck, so the probability of drawing an ace on the first draw is 4/52. Since we need exactly 3 aces, the probability of drawing 3 aces and 3 non-aces (out of the remaining 48 cards) is given by the binomial probability formula:

P(3 aces) = (4/52)^3 * (48/52)^3 * C(6,3)

where C(6,3) is the number of ways to choose 3 cards out of 6. Using a calculator, we get:

P(3 aces) = 0.0080

Find the probability of drawing exactly 2 queens: There are 4 queens in the deck, so the probability of drawing a queen on the first draw is 4/52. Since we need exactly 2 queens, the probability of drawing 2 queens and 4 non-queens (out of the remaining 48 cards) is given by:

P(2 queens) = (4/52)^2 * (48/52)^4 * C(6,2)

where C(6,2) is the number of ways to choose 2 cards out of 6. Using a calculator, we get:

P(2 queens) = 0.2123

Find the probability of drawing exactly 1 king: There are 4 kings in the deck, so the probability of drawing a king on the first draw is 4/52. Since we need exactly 1 king, the probability of drawing 1 king and 5 non-kings (out of the remaining 48 cards) is given by:

P(1 king) = (4/52)^1 * (48/52)^5 * C(6,1)

where C(6,1) is the number of ways to choose 1 card out of 6. Using a calculator, we get:

P(1 king) = 0.4017

Now we can use the multiplication rule to find the probability of drawing exactly 3 aces, 2 queens, and 1 king:

P(exactly 3 aces, 2 queens, 1 king) = P(3 aces) * P(2 queens) * P(1 king)

= 0.0080 * 0.2123 * 0.4017

= 0.000682

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therefore the correct answer is c

Answer:

11 9/10

Step-by-step explanation:

6 + 5 = 11

1/10 + 4/5

1/10 + 8/10 = 9/10

11 + 9/10 = 11 9/10

HOPE THIS HELPS

PLZ MARK BRAINLIEST

Answer: Answer: The answer should be 11 9/10.

Answer:

92 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

"Roughly" 17,150 miles per hour

(which is about 5 minutes per second)

this means that the space station orbits Earth once every 92 minutes.

hoped that helps you and God bless

Options a, b, d, and g are the correct conditions for a Binomial Distribution.

The four conditions necessary for X to have a Binomial Distribution are:

a. There are n set trials: In a binomial distribution, the number of trials, denoted as "n," must be predetermined and fixed. Each trial is independent and represents a discrete event.

b. The trials must be independent: The outcomes of each trial must be independent of each other. This means that the outcome of one trial does not influence or affect the outcome of any other trial. The independence assumption ensures that the probability of success remains constant across all trials.

d. There can only be two outcomes, a success and a failure: In a binomial distribution, each trial can have only two possible outcomes. These outcomes are typically labeled as "success" and "failure," although they can represent any two mutually exclusive events. The probability of success is denoted as "p," and the probability of failure is denoted as "q," where q = 1 - p.

g. The probability of success, p, is constant from trial to trial: In a binomial distribution, the probability of success (p) remains constant throughout all trials. This means that the likelihood of the desired outcome occurring remains the same for each trial. The constant probability ensures consistency in the distribution.

The remaining options, c, e, and f, are not conditions necessary for a binomial distribution. Option c, "Continue sampling until you get a success," suggests a different type of distribution where the number of trials is not predetermined. Options e and f, "You must have at least 10 successes and 10 failures" and "The population must be at least 10x larger than the sample," are not specific conditions for a binomial distribution. The number of successes or failures and the size of the population relative to the sample size are not inherent requirements for a binomial distribution.

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Answer:

quadratic

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes, it is a polynomial because it is a non-negative integer

The most appropriate model to represent the data in the table is (d)

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

The table of values

In the above table of values, we can see that

To show as the number of miles change by day

A linear or line graph has to be plotted

Hence, the most appropriate model to represent the data is (d)

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Brock is at a distance of 621/40 miles away from home.

Here, we are given that Brock rides his bike 22 1/8 miles to the nature preserve.

This means that he is now 22 1/8 miles away from his home. Now, he starts on his way home and after 16 1/5 miles, he stops at a deli for lunch.

Thus, he is now 22 1/8 - 16 1/5 miles away from his home.

To subtract the fractions we need to convert the mixed fractions into improper fractions, which can be done as follows-

22 1/8 = (22*8 + 1)/8

= 177/8

and 16 1/5 = (16*5 + 1)/5

= 33/5

Thus, the expression becomes-

177/8 - 33/5

now, we need to make the denominators of each fraction so that we can subtract them.

= (177*5)/40 - (33*8)/40

= 885/40 - 264/40

= 621/40

Thus, Brock is at a distance of 621/40 miles away from home.

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To ensure success in building customer relationships, the Marriott group of hotels requires its employees to have a customer-oriented attitude and take customer-oriented actions.

The success of the Marriott group of hotels in building relationships with customers relies on the attitudes and actions of its employees. A customer-oriented approach is crucial for fostering positive interactions and creating memorable experiences for guests. Employees with a customer-oriented attitude prioritize the needs and satisfaction of customers above all else. They actively listen to guests, show empathy, and strive to exceed expectations. Additionally, taking customer-oriented actions involves going the extra mile to personalize service, addressing individual preferences and requirements. This includes anticipating and fulfilling customer needs, providing timely and accurate information, and resolving issues promptly and efficiently. By being customer-oriented in both attitude and action, Marriott employees can enhance guest satisfaction, foster loyalty, and ultimately contribute to the overall success of the hotel group.

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Answer:

\(5x= 15\)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

\(3x - 5 = -2x +10\)

Required

Write the variables and constants on different sides

\(3x - 5 = -2x +10\)

Add 2x to both sides

\(2x + 3x - 5 =2x -2x +10\)

\(5x - 5 =10\)

Add 5 to both sides

\(5x - 5 + 5 = 10 + 5\)

\(5x= 10 + 5\)

\(5x= 15\)

Hence, the equation is

\(5x= 15\)

Solving further [divide both sides by 5]

\(x = 3\)

I think it is -5=x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = (5/9)x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope intercept form is

y = mx + b then plug in the values

y = (5/9)x + 2

The value of q is -27.

Recall Vieta's Formulas, which state that for a quadratic equation \(ax^2\) + bx + c = 0 with zeroes alpha and beta, the sum of the zeroes is equal to -b/a, and the product of the zeroes is equal to c/a.

In our equation \(x^2\) - 3x + q, the sum of the zeroes alpha and beta is -(-3)/1 = 3.

We are given that 2 alpha + 3 beta = 15. Substitute alpha = (15 - 3 beta)/2 into the equation.

Replace the value of alpha in the sum of zeroes equation: (15 - 3 beta)/2 + beta = 3.

Simplify the equation by multiplying both sides by 2: 15 - 3 beta + 2 beta = 6.

Combine like terms: 15 - beta = 6.

Subtract 15 from both sides: -beta = -9.

Multiply both sides by -1 to solve for beta: beta = 9.

Substitute the value of beta into the sum of zeroes equation: alpha = (15 - 3 * 9)/2 = -3.

Since we have the values of alpha and beta, we can find q using the product of the zeroes formula: q = alpha * beta = -3 * 9 = -27.

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Answer:

What events or steps are described?

Do these things need to occur in a particular order?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is 1

........

1+0=1

Because anything plus zero equals itself (Example) :

3+0=3, 4+0=4, etc

Therefore

1+0=1

Have a good day!

The correct answer is that the probability of a cash flow being between $16,000 and $19,000 is approximately 18.59%.

To calculate the probability of a cash flow being between $16,000 and $19,000, we can use the standard deviation and assume a normal distribution.

We are given that the average cash flow is $14,000 with a standard deviation of $5,000. These values are necessary to calculate the probability.

The probability of a cash flow falling within a certain range can be determined by converting the values to z-scores, which represent the number of standard deviations away from the mean.

First, we calculate the z-score for $16,000 using the formula: z = (x - μ) / σ, where x is the cash flow value, μ is the mean, and σ is the standard deviation. Plugging in the values, we get z1 = (16,000 - 14,000) / 5,000.

z1 = 2,000 / 5,000 = 0.4.

Next, we calculate the z-score for $19,000: z2 = (19,000 - 14,000) / 5,000.

z2 = 5,000 / 5,000 = 1.

Now that we have the z-scores, we can use a standard normal distribution table or calculator to find the corresponding probabilities.

Subtracting the probability corresponding to the lower z-score from the probability corresponding to the higher z-score will give us the probability of the cash flow falling between $16,000 and $19,000.

Looking up the z-scores in a standard normal distribution table or using a calculator, we find the probability for z1 is 0.6554 and the probability for z2 is 0.8413.

Therefore, the probability of the cash flow being between $16,000 and $19,000 is 0.8413 - 0.6554 = 0.1859, which is approximately 18.59%.

So, the correct answer is that the probability of a cash flow being between $16,000 and $19,000 is approximately 18.59%.

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The probability of a cash flow between $16,000 and $19,000 is approximately 18.59%.

To calculate the probability of a cash flow being between $16,000 and $19,000, we can use the standard deviation and assume a normal distribution.

We are given that the average cash flow is $14,000 with a standard deviation of $5,000. These values are necessary to calculate the probability.

The probability of a cash flow falling within a certain range can be determined by converting the values to z-scores, which represent the number of standard deviations away from the mean.

First, we calculate the z-score for $16,000 using the formula: z = (x - μ) / σ, where x is the cash flow value, μ is the mean, and σ is the standard deviation. Plugging in the values, we get z1 = (16,000 - 14,000) / 5,000.

z1 = 2,000 / 5,000 = 0.4.

Next, we calculate the z-score for $19,000: z2 = (19,000 - 14,000) / 5,000.

z2 = 5,000 / 5,000 = 1.

Now that we have the z-scores, we can use a standard normal distribution table or calculator to find the corresponding probabilities.

Subtracting the probability corresponding to the lower z-score from the probability corresponding to the higher z-score will give us the probability of the cash flow falling between $16,000 and $19,000.

Looking up the z-scores in a standard normal distribution table or using a calculator, we find the probability for z1 is 0.6554 and the probability for z2 is 0.8413.

Therefore, the probability of the cash flow being between $16,000 and $19,000 is 0.8413 - 0.6554 = 0.1859, which is approximately 18.59%.

So, the correct answer is that the probability of a cash flow being between $16,000 and $19,000 is approximately 18.59%.

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The graph of a proportional relationship is a line through the origin or a ray whose endpoint is the origin

3. No because it's a line that doesn't go through the origin

4. Yes because it's a line through the origin

5. Yes because 1/3 = 2/6 = 3/9 = 4/12

6. No because 4/2 isn't equal to 8/5

7. Draw a graph just like 4., but change the y-axis

8. a. Let the equation be y = ax. 27 = 3a. a = 9. Therefore the equation is y = 9x.

8. b. 9

8. c. 9 * 5 = 45

9. a. The car travels 25 (> 18) miles per gallon of gasoline.

9. b. 25 * 8 - 18 * 8 = 7 * 8 = 56

2 + 7 = 9

6 + 4 = 10

2 + - 7 = -5

- 2 + 7 = 5

- 2 + - 7 = -9

6 + - 4 = 2

- 6 + 4 = - 2

- 6 + - 4 = -10

Answer:

14586 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

14,600-14%=   729993/50

simplify you get 14599  43/50

pic the closest answer

Answer: 80°

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the angles in a triangle is 180°. Since the two angles of a triangle measure 15° and 85°.

The measure for the third angle will be:

= 180° - (15° + 85°)

= 180° - 100°

= 80°

The third angle is 80°

3+4 = 7

-. .. -.-. . / - .-. -.--

Answer:

3 + 4 = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

U get 3 apples and 4 apples then u add them and u have 7 in total

(a) To determine how many hours Wendy should spend on economics and mathematics, we need to know her preferences for each subject.

If she likes economics more than mathematics, she should spend more time on economics and vice versa. Assuming she likes both subjects equally, she could divide her study time equally between the two subjects, spending two hours on each.

(b) The number of chapters she studies would depend on the length and complexity of the chapters. If the chapters are of equal length and difficulty, she could divide her study time equally between the chapters in each subject. For example, if she has four chapters to study in economics and four chapters to study in mathematics, she could study one chapter from each subject per day.

(c) To calculate Wendy's utility, we would need to know her preferences and the benefits she derives from studying each subject. Utility is a measure of satisfaction or well-being, so it depends on subjective factors. If Wendy derives the same level of satisfaction from studying each subject and finds both equally beneficial, her utility would be maximized by dividing her study time equally between the two subjects.

(d) Doubling the number of hours she studies would likely increase her utility if she enjoys studying and derives benefits from it. However, if she becomes fatigued or stressed from studying for too long, her utility could decrease. Again, her utility would depend on her preferences and the benefits she derives from studying, so it is difficult to make a general prediction without additional information.

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An expression for the percent error in Theresa estimate is (5.4-5)/5 ×100.

Percentage is defined as a given part or amount in every hundred. It is a fraction with 100 as the denominator and is represented by the symbol "%".

Given that, Theresa estimated that a caterpillar was 5 centimeters long. Later, she found its actual length to be 5.4 centimeters.

Now, percent error = (Actual length-Expected length)/Expected length ×100

= (5.4-5)/5 ×100

= 0.4/5 ×100

= 0.08×100

= 8%

Therefore, the percent error in Theresa estimate is 8%.

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Probability of getting more heads than tails is 0.75(b)

To determine the probability of getting more heads than tails from tossing a coin three times, we need to list all the possible outcomes of the three tosses:

HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT

From the eight possible outcomes, we can see that there are three outcomes with more heads than tails: HHT, HTH, THH

Therefore, the probability of getting more heads than tails is 3/8 or 0.375.So, the answer is option b) 0.75

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Answer:

Conversion: a change in the form of a measurement, different units, without a change in the size or amount.

for a further explanation please give us more information about the question

Answer:

g(x)=x

4

+3x

3

−x

2

−3x

Step-by-step explanation:

To show that w is in the subspace of R4 spanned by V1, V2, and V3, we need to find constants c1, c2, and c3 such that:

w = c1V1 + c2V2 + c3V3

We can write this as a matrix equation:

| 1 -4 -9 -4 | | c1 | | -2 |

| 6 3 5 1 | x | c2 | = | -1 |

| 2 4 11 -8 | | c3 | | -1 |

| -15 7 22 -14 | | -2 |

We can solve this system of equations using row reduction:

| 1 -4 -9 -4 | | c1 | | -2 |

| 6 3 5 1 | x | c2 | = | -1 |

| 2 4 11 -8 | | c3 | | -1 |

| -15 7 22 -14 | | -2 |

R2 = R2 - 6R1

R3 = R3 - 2R1

R4 = R4 + 15R1

| 1 -4 -9 -4 | | c1 | | -2 |

| 0 27 59 25 | x | c2 | = | 11 |

| 0 12 29 -16 | | c3 | | 3 |

| 0 -23 67 -59 | | -32 |

R4 = R4 + 23R2

| 1 -4 -9 -4 | | c1 | | -2 |

| 0 27 59 25 | x | c2 | = | 11 |

| 0 12 29 -16 | | c3 | | 3 |

| 0 0 174 -294 | | 225 |

R3 = R3 - (12/27)R2

R4 = (1/174)R4

| 1 -4 -9 -4 | | c1 | | -2 |

| 0 27 59 25 | x | c2 | = | 11 |

| 0 0 -1 22/3 | | c3 | | -13/3 |

| 0 0 1 -98/87 | | 25/58 |

R1 = R1 + 4R3

R2 = R2 - 59R3

R4 = R4 + (98/87)R3

| 1 0 -13 -10/3 | | c1 | | 21/29 |

| 0 27 0 -2119/87 | x | c2 | = | 2238/87 |

| 0 0 1 -98/87 | | c3 | | 25/58 |

| 0 0 0 1390/2391 | | 1009/2391 |

R1 = R1 + (13/1390)R4

R2 = (1/27)R2

R3 = R3 + (98/1390)R4

| 1

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