2. the oncology clinical nurse educator is asked to develop a staff development program for registered nurses who will be administering chemotherapeutic agents. because the nurses will be administering a variety of chemotherapeutic drugs to oncology patients, the educator plans on presenting an overview of agents, classifications, and special precautions related to the safe handling and administration of these drugs. (learning outcome 5)a. what does the clinical nurse educator describe as the goals of chemotherapy?

Answers

Answer 1

The clinical nurse educator would describe the goals of chemotherapy as a treatment modality that aims to destroy cancer cells or prevent their growth and spread.

Chemotherapy may be used to cure cancer, shrink tumors before surgery, or help alleviate symptoms in patients with advanced cancer. The overall goal of chemotherapy is to improve patient outcomes, which may include increased survival, improved quality of life, and reduced cancer-related symptoms. The nurse educator may also emphasize the importance of balancing the benefits of chemotherapy with its potential side effects, and educating patients on what to expect during treatment.

1. To cure cancer: The primary goal of chemotherapy is to completely eradicate the cancerous cells from the patient's body, resulting in a full recovery.

2. To control cancer growth: If a complete cure is not achievable, chemotherapy aims to control the growth and spread of cancer cells, slowing down the progression of the disease.

3. To provide palliation: In cases where the cancer is in an advanced stage, chemotherapy may be used to alleviate symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life by reducing the size of tumors and relieving pain or discomfort.

Goals of chemotherapy are to cure cancer, control its growth, and provide palliation to improve patients' quality of life. The clinical nurse educator will also discuss the different classifications of chemotherapeutic agents, as well as the special precautions required for their safe handling and administration.

To know more about chemotherapy, refer

https://brainly.com/question/847407

#SPJ11


Related Questions

When is quality control used in pregnancy testing kits?
-Without using the urine specimen

-To confirm the blood specimen pregnancy test

-to use as a comparison to the original pregnancy test results

-only if it is built in the pregnancy testing kit

Answers

Answer:

to confirm the blood specimen pregnancy test

Explanation:

i might be wrong

a patient who has acute pancreatitis is prescribed famotidine. the nurse explains that this drug is given for which purpose?

Answers

The function of giving a patient with acute pancreatitis is to reduce stomach acid production.

What is corelation between pancreatitis with stomach acid?

Pancreatitis is an inflammation of the organ lying located behind the lower part of the stomach which is called pancreas.

Pancreatitis could come suddenly and last for days or it may occur over many years. Previous studies prove that anti-acid therapy with proton pump inhibitors can reduce pancreatic secretion and it can be used on treating acute pancreatitis. The common cause of pancreatitis to occur are gallstones that block enzyme regulation in the pancreas.

Learn more about pancreatitis here

https://brainly.com/question/29097123

#SPJ4

What is the difference between a CBC and a CMP?

A. A CBC checks some components of major cells in the patients blood while a CMP test several different substances mainly metabolism, sugar, and kidney/liver health.

B. A CMP is for heart health testing the function of the arteries and valves while a CBC is a blood test for contents of blood.

C. There is no difference between a CBC and a CMP.

D. A CBC tests the functions of the arteries and valves while a CMP tests the function of different parts of the brain.

Answers

the answer is A.
A CMP is a more targeted test that evaluates sugar, metabolism,kidney, liver
A CBC is mainly the cells in the blood

Independent or individual practice associations (IPAS) are based on

Answers

Answer:

Independent Practice Association is a type of health maintenance organization which individual practitioners see the patients that are enrolled in the HMO but also treat their own patients who are also just not HMO participants.

a condition that affects the lungs is called...
A. cardiac, asthma
B. respiratory, diabetes
C. respiratory, asthma
D. cardiac, heart disease ​

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

All the other things have things that are cardiac...cardiac is heart

Answer:

C. respiratory, asthma

Explanation:

Cardiac refers to the heart, diabetes is an endocrine disease, heart disease is, well, a disease of the heart.

Asthma is an example of a lung condition, and respiratory refers to the lungs.

Selecting Supplement Pharmacy Technician Tasks
Note that the common tasks are listed toward the top and less common tasks are listed toward the bottom. According to O*NET, what are common supplement tasks performed pharmacy technicians? Check all that apply.

a. publishing pharmacy literature.
b. monitoring robotic dispensing machines.
c. assessing the purity of medications.
d. pricing merchandise and marking items for sale.
e. processing medical insurance claims forms.
f. evaluating the effectiveness of drugs.

Answers

Answer:

B. Monitoring robotic dispensing machines.

D. Pricing merchandise and marking items for sale.

E. Processing medical insurance claims forms.

Explanation:

I calculated it logically

the answer is

B

D

e

i got it right

One of the most effective strategies for resisting drugs is simply to?

Answers

One of the most effective strategies for resisting drugs is simply to avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.

What is drug resistance?

Drug resistance can simply be defined as the reduction in effectiveness of a medication such as an antimicrobial or an antineoplastic in treating a particulat disease or condition at a given period of time.

Drugs are substances used to treat an illness, relieve a symptom, or modify a chemical process in the body for a specific purpose.

So therefore, one of the most effective and simplest strategies for resisting drugs is simply to avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.

Learn more about dug resistance:

https://brainly.com/question/8132354

#SPJ1

Electronic health record system were built to share information with

Answers

with other health care providers and organizations – such as laboratories, specialists, medical imaging facilities, pharmacies, emergency facilities, and school and workplace clinics – so they contain information from all clinicians involved in a patient's care.


1. Explain why you think the office would have a "no cell phones" policy for employees
D

Answers

Answer:

hipaa violations

Explanation:

The office would have no cell phones policy for employees to increase the concentration during the working hours and increase the productivity of work.

What is no cell phone policy?

No cell phone policy is the policy in which the use of cell phone is strictly prohibited and it is implemented in offices or working place to increase the productivity and concentration in workings hours.

Excessive use of cell phone at work can reduce the quality of work because while using phone brain stops to generate the good ideas and limit yourself.

During working hours mobile devices are could to be in the desk and advised not to keep the mobile phone in hand or nearby working table.

Cell phone policies is a set of guidelines regarding use of cellphone in the workplace. The employees of that workplace should be  read cell phone policies before joining.

Several countries banned cell phone on working place to avoid distraction during work. It helps to maintain the productivity and total working are utilized properly in order to achieve the target.

Learn more about "no cell phone" here:

https://brainly.com/question/21108877

#SPJ2

In a physician practice, revenue cycle management is also called accounts receivable management. Revenue cycle steps: Patient registration. • Appropriate consents for treatment and release of information are obtained

Answers

Revenue cycle management (RCM) is the process of tracking a patient's account from appointment scheduling to final payment. It includes all clinical and administrative functions that occur from the time the patient seeks initial services until the balance on their account is zero. RCM aims to maintain an effective cash flow, boost revenue, and minimize bad debts, among other things.

In a physician's practice, revenue cycle management is also known as accounts receivable management.  This technique is used to handle a practice's revenue collection process from start to finish. It is the method of properly managing the billing process, from the beginning to the end of a patient's visit to the doctor.  

The Revenue cycle management process consists of several steps. Patient registration and the appropriate consent to treatment and release of information are the first two steps in the process.
Patient registration is the process of collecting information from patients who have scheduled appointments. Patients should fill out the registration form, which includes their contact information, medical history, and insurance information. The data is entered into the practice's management system, which is utilized to file insurance claims.
Appropriate consents for treatment and release of information are obtained from the patient or their authorized representative as part of the second step in the revenue cycle. The physician must acquire the patient's written consent to allow the practice to release medical records to insurance companies, other medical practitioners, and any other entity required by law or agreement.

Learn more about: Revenue cycle management

https://brainly.com/question/32810687

#SPJ11

When heading back to​ quarters, on what should you place your​ emphasis?
A. A safe return
B. Documentation
C. Beginning to reorganize the ambulance
D. Refueling the ambulance for the next call

Answers

Answer:

A. A safe return.

Explanation:

When heading back to quarters, we should place our emphasis on a safe return.

Thus, the correct answer is A.

It is important to prioritize the safety of ourselves and our crew members while returning to the quarters on EMS operations. Option A is correct because while returning to quаrters the emphаsis should be plаced on returning sаfely. Option B is incorrect because documentаtion is not done during the return to quаrters, but before leаving the hospitаl. Option C is incorrect because heаding bаck to quаrters is not the time to begin reorgаnizаtion of the аmbulаnce. Option D is incorrect because the emphаsis is plаced on sаfety first, then on things like getting fuel in the аmbulаnce.

For more information about EMS operations refer to the link: https://brainly.com/question/30290012

#SPJ11

A deficiency in __________ is experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries; this deficiency leads to fatigue, irritability, and difficulty sustaining attention.

Answers

A deficiency in iron is experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries.

What is iron deficiency?

Iron deficiency is defined as the lack of sufficient iron in the body leading to a type of anemia called iron deficiency anemia.

The clinical manifestations of this deficiency include;

fatigue,

irritability, and

difficulty sustaining attention.

It is usually experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries.

Learn more about anaemia here:

https://brainly.com/question/866200

#SPJ1

the client, who is taking fluoxetine 20 mg at bedtime, tells the nurse the drug is interfering with his sleep. what conclusion should the nurse make?

Answers

The nurse should conclude that the fluoxetine is causing the patient's disrupted sleep. The nurse should take a thorough history from the patient and assess the effectiveness of the medication.

If the patient has been taking the fluoxetine for some time, the nurse should consider alternative medications or a lower dose of the current medication. Other treatment options may include light therapy, behavioral therapy, and herbal or over-the-counter remedies.

Additionally, the nurse should provide education to the patient on how to improve their sleep hygiene, such as avoiding caffeine and exercising regularly. The nurse should also suggest stress management techniques such as relaxation exercises, yoga, and meditation.

Finally, the nurse should follow up with the patient to ensure their sleep is improving.

For more such questions on fluoxetine

brainly.com/question/28494029

#SPJ11

because of their inability to ambulate, children with cerebral palsy should be evaluated for which nutrients?

Answers

Children with cerebral palsy may have difficulty ambulating due to muscle weakness, spasms, or stiffness, which can affect their ability to maintain a healthy weight and meet their nutritional needs. Therefore, it is important to evaluate these children for several key nutrients, including:

1. Protein: Protein is essential for muscle growth and repair. Children with cerebral palsy may require additional protein to support their muscle development and prevent muscle wasting.

2. Calcium and vitamin D: These nutrients are important for bone health and development, particularly in children who may have limited weight-bearing activities. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation may be necessary to ensure adequate bone mineralization.

3. Iron: Iron is necessary for the formation of red blood cells and oxygen transport throughout the body. Children with cerebral palsy may be at increased risk of iron deficiency anemia due to gastrointestinal issues or restricted food intake.

4. Vitamin B12: Vitamin B12 is important for nerve function and the production of red blood cells. Children with cerebral palsy who are unable to consume a balanced diet may be at risk of vitamin B12 deficiency.

5. Fiber: Adequate fiber intake is important for promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation, which can be a common issue in children with cerebral palsy.

6. Calories: Children with cerebral palsy may require additional calories to support their growth and development, particularly if they have difficulty feeding or experience involuntary movements that increase their energy expenditure.

A registered dietitian can work with the child's healthcare team to develop an individualized nutrition plan that meets their specific needs and preferences.

For more such questions on Cerebral palsy

brainly.com/question/30490886

#SPJ11

When using a winged blood collection set, a light blue stopper tube should be collected first.a) trueb) false

Answers

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

True because the blue tube has an additive called citrate, these additives when changing from one tube to another there is the possibility that they contaminate the next tube in the order of filling with their additive, this can alter the parameters we want to measure, for both by following these filling order strategies, the aim is to reduce the possibility that one tube is contaminated with the additive of another and in this way that the parameters are not altered

1.how can a blue whales age be determined? 2.how are a blue whales length and weight compared in the audio?

Answers

Counting the layers of a deceased whale's wax like earplugs provides information about the age of the blue whale.

How can a blue whales age be determined?

Scientists have discovered that counting the layers of a deceased whale's wax like earplugs provides information about the age of the blue whale. The oldest blue whale found using this method was determined 110 years old but the average age is 90 years.

So we can conclude that counting the layers of a deceased whale's wax like earplugs provides information about the age of the blue whale.

Learn more about whale here: https://brainly.com/question/1799692

#SPJ1


Which of the following statements is WRONG about performing chest
compressions? *
Allow the chest to completely rise back up after a chest compression
Press down at least 6 inches in adults
Position yourself at the victim's side
Keep interruptions to a minimum

Answers

Pressing down at 6 inches in adults is just kill the person

how can the information from a software phr be shared​

Answers

Patients can decide whether to share their information with providers, family members or anyone else involved in their care. In some cases, a stand-alone PHR can also accept data from external sources, such as laboratories or providers. ... Patients can access their records in a tethered PHR through a secure portal.

Which of the following is the best place to find credible health information?
A.
The bestseller list
B.
The Department of Health and Human Services
C.
The advice from a celebrity
D.
Your mom

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

Answer:

ur mom B) nah its B

Explanation:

The most common method by which firms transfer funds from foreign subsidiaries to the parent firm is by blank______.

Answers

The most common method by which firms transfer funds from foreign subsidiaries to the parent firm is by wire transfer.

This involves electronically transferring funds from one bank account to another. Wire transfers are a fast and secure method of transferring funds, and they are commonly used for international transactions. Wire transfers are usually processed within one or two business days, and they can be initiated by the parent firm or the foreign subsidiary.

To initiate a wire transfer, the parent firm will typically provide the foreign subsidiary with their bank account details, including the SWIFT code and account number. The foreign subsidiary will then initiate the wire transfer through their bank, and the funds will be transferred to the parent firm's bank account.

More on wire transfer: https://brainly.com/question/29545746

#SPJ11

In normal healthy adult, Calculate the Gain of control system of cold temperature if A cold exposure is expected to bring the body temperature down to 20°C but brings it down only to 36.5°C?

Answers

Answer:

Increased intraluminal pressure may help maintain vasodilation in a dependent arm even after hypothermia triggers centrally mediated thermoregulatory vasoconstriction. We therefore tested the hypotheses that the threshold (triggering core temperature) and gain (increase in vasoconstriction per degree centigrade) of cold-induced vasoconstriction is reduced in the dependent arm during anesthesia. Anesthesia was maintained with 0.4 minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration of desflurane in 10 volunteers in the left-lateral position. Mean skin temperature was reduced to 31 degrees C to decrease core body temperature. Fingertip blood flow in both arms was measured, as was core body temperature. The vasoconstriction threshold was slightly, but significantly, less in the dependent arm (36.2 degrees C +/- 0.3 degrees C, mean +/- SD) than in the upper arm (36.5 degrees C +/- 0.3 degrees C). However, the gain of vasoconstriction in the dependent arm was 2.3-fold greater than in the upper arm. Consequently, intense vasoconstriction (i.e., a fingertip blood flow of 0.15 mL/min) occurred at similar core temperatures. In the lateral position, the vasoconstriction threshold was reduced in the dependent arm; however, gain was also increased in the dependent arm. The thermoregulatory system may thus recognize that hydrostatic forces reduce the vasoconstriction threshold and may compensate by sufficiently augmenting gain.

Implications: The threshold for cold-induced vasoconstriction is reduced in the dependent arm, but the gain of vasoconstriction is increased. Consequently, the core temperature triggering intense vasoconstriction was similar in each arm, suggesting that the thermoregulatory system compensates for the hydrostatic effects of the lateral position.

How does the Neuro Disorder Association define chronic migraine?

Answers

Neuro Disorder Association also called the National Institute of Neurological disorder defined chronic migraine to be a severe pulsing or throbbing pain in one area of the head.

However, Chronic Migraine is recognized by its pain and frequency of episodes ranging about 5 times and lasting for 4 - 72 hours if not treated.

It includes other symptoms such as:

NauseaVomiting, and/orSensitivity to both light and sound.

Migraine sufferers frequently experience repeated episodes that are provoked by a variety of causes such as:

StressWorryHormonal changesBright or flashing lights, etc.

Learn more about Chronic Migraine here;

https://brainly.com/question/14974427

What would tell them about your functions as a medical assistant?

Answers

Answer:

Similar to a Medical Administrative Assistant, but will also perform routine clinical duties under the supervision of a physician, nurse practitioner, or PA.

Explanation:

Duties for a Medical Assistant include, but not limited to: vital signs, medical histories, preparing patients for tests/procedures, assisting doctors during procedures or physical exams, sterilizing medical instruments and preparing patients for x-rays.

Do you feel the government should be involved in mandating nurse-patient ratios through legislation? What would be the advantages of such a mandate? What would be the disadvantages.

Answers

the advantages of mandating nurse-patient ratios through legislation include increased safety and better quality of care for patients as well as higher standards in hospitals. the disadvantages may include increased costs for hospitals and less flexibility in nursing staff scheduling and potential complications with the implementation of such a mandate. ultimately whether or not the government should be involved in mandating nurse-patient ratios is up to individual countries to decide based on their particular needs and resources.

_____ is often rated the most commonly used treatment among practicing therapists, and it uses a variety of techniques depending on the client and the problem.

Answers

Answer:

Eclectic psychotherapy

catheters, endoscopes, and implants are not heat-sterilizable so they must be sterilized with sterilants.T/F

Answers

The statement is true. Catheters, endoscopes, and implants are typically not heat-sterilizable due to their complex design and materials.

These medical devices often contain components that cannot withstand high temperatures without being damaged or compromised. Therefore, alternative methods of sterilization, such as the use of sterilants, are employed to ensure their safety and efficacy.

Sterilants are chemical agents or processes specifically designed to kill or eliminate microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, from medical devices. Common sterilization methods using sterilants include ethylene oxide (ETO) gas sterilization, hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization, and liquid chemical sterilization.

These techniques allow for the effective sterilization of sensitive medical devices that cannot undergo traditional heat-based sterilization methods. Therefore, the statement is true.

For more details regarding endoscopes, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31713816

#SPJ1

during feedings, a newborn has diffculty sucking and swallowing and tires easily. which physiological process would the nurse consider when assessing this infant?

Answers

The nurse may consider an early indication of a heart defect when assessing this infant, as difficulty with sucking and swallowing, as well as tiredness during feedings, are common signs of a heart problem.

Heart defects in newborns are a type of congenital heart disease (CHD). A congenital heart defect, or CHD, is a heart condition that occurs during fetal development, resulting in the heart being malformed or not functioning properly. Congenital heart defects can be categorized into two categories: cyanotic heart disease and cyanotic heart disease.

The defect may affect the heart's walls, valves, or blood vessels. Most congenital heart defects either obstruct blood flow in the heart or vessels near it or cause blood to flow through the heart in an abnormal pattern, potentially affecting blood oxygen levels.

Learn more about  congenital heart disease at https://brainly.com/question/7184122

#SPJ11

Triglycerides are composed of _____.
(a) a 3
3 carbon alcohol
(b) 3
3 long chain fatty acids
(c) phosphate groups
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) (a), (b), and (c).

Answers

Triglycerides are composed of three long chain fatty acids and a three-carbon alcohol called glycerol. Therefore, the correct option is d) both (a) and (b).

Triglycerides, also known as triacylglycerol's, are a type of lipid molecule that is found in many types of organisms, including plants and animals. They are the main component of body fat and serve as a long-term energy storage source in the body. Triglycerides are composed of three fatty acid molecules bound to a glycerol molecule through ester linkages. The length and saturation of the fatty acid chains can vary, giving rise to different types of triglycerides with different physical properties. Triglycerides are transported in the bloodstream by lipoproteins and can be broken down by enzymes called lipases to release energy for the body to use. High levels of triglycerides in the blood have been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.

For more such questions on Triglycerides

https://brainly.com/question/30653837

#SPJ4

Choose the answer.
Which resource can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms?
Hippocratic dictionary
Hippocratic thesaurus
medical dictionary
medical thesaurus

Answers

Answer:

medical dictionary

Explanation:

The resource that can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms is the medical dictionary.

The medical dictionary contains the lexicon of words that medical practitioners or students use. When there's a medical terms that a person doesn't understand, the medical dictionary can help the student as it gives the meaning of the term.

In conclusion, the best option is C.

Read related link on:

https://brainly.com/question/19434676

when auscultating the anterior part of the chest, specifically the apex of the lungs, it is best to auscultate where with the stethoscope?

Answers

When auscultating the anterior part of the chest, specifically the apex of the lungs, it is best to auscultate with the stethoscope at the second intercostal space at the left sternal border (2ICS LSB).

Auscultation is a clinical skill used to listen to internal sounds using a stethoscope. It can be used to monitor various organs of the body like the heart, lungs, and stomach sounds. The term was coined by Rene Laennec, a French doctor in the 19th century.

A stethoscope is a medical device used for listening to the internal sounds of the human body. It was invented by Laennec as well.

The apex of the lung lies above the level of the clavicle and therefore includes the anterior, superior, and a small part of the posterior thorax.

The lung apex can be accessed by placing the stethoscope over the 2nd intercostal space at the left sternal border.

It is best to listen to the lung sounds at the apex of the lung since the majority of respiratory diseases start from the upper lobe of the lungs.

To know more about intercostal visit:

https://brainly.com/question/33456054

#SPJ11

Other Questions
What is the arc length of a circle that has a 6 inch radius and a central angle that is 85 degrees? a function is given by a formula. determine whether the function is one-to-one. g(x) = 7 sin(x) yes, it is one-to-one. no, it is not one-to-one. use the van der waals equation to calculate the pressure, in atm, of 32.59 mol of hydrogen at 168 oc in a 2.5 l container. Find the area of the shaded region on the right. y 4x y 6-2x 0 3 The area is (Simplify your answer.) the midwife has just examined a labor patient and states that she is 10 cm dilated. the nurse is aware that this patient is in which stage of labor? what is the type of element characterized by the presence of electrons in the d orbital Management information systems (mis) provide ________ reports, which show conditions that are unusual or need attention from users of the system. What is the meaning of the word anticipation as it is used in this sentence?"The anticipation of pausing on the hilltop, with lots of potential energy, is almost as fun as flying down ..." (paragraph 3) If everything in someone's life in sufficed would he or she be content Marine organisms are limited in terms of where in the ocean they can live because of the enormous amount of pressure in the deep sea. (True or False) scientists claim that one reason earth is warming is because it is absorbing more radiation from the sun. which data best support this claim? A. by 2100 only 50% if the solar energy will be reflected from the sea ice Which group of individuals tends to be the most adaptable attractive and securing relationships? A point charge +q is located at the center of a hollow conducting sphere of inner radius "a" and outer radius "b". The net charge on the sphere is -Q (a) Use Gauss's law to find the electric field everywhere in space. (b) What is the charge per unit area induced on the inner surface of the sphere with radius "a"? (c) What is the charge per unit area induced on the outer surface of the sphere with radius "b"? A+radioactive+substance+has+a+decay+rate+of+1.9%+per+minute.+of+an+initial+amount+of+1000+g+of+the+substance,+how+much+will+remain+after+60+minutes? In the context of cash flow analysis, _____ are a useful measure as a means to evaluate performance when there is a separation between managers and owners. Lacy is a single taxpayer. In 2022, her taxable income is $44,000. What is her tax liability in each of the following alternative situations? Use Tax Rate Schedule, Dividends and Capital Gains Tax Rates for reference. Note: Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.Required:All of her income is salary from her employer.Her $44,000 of taxable income includes $1,000 of qualified dividends.Her $44,000 of taxable income includes $5,000 of qualified dividends In order to ________ the money supply, the federal reserve should ________ bonds in open market operations. The major innovation of bohr's model was the idea that energy levels are ____________. Demonstrate your knowledge of preparing an adjusted trial balance by selecting the correct statement below. Multiple choice question. An adjusted trial balance is prepared after adjustments are posted, so new accounts may need to be added. The debit and credit column totals don't have to equal each other on an adjusted trial balance. An adjusted trial balance is a list of accounts and balances prepared before adjustments are posted. Question 14 Previous Next> The industry-low, industry-average, and industry-high cost benchmarks that appear on p. 6 and p. 7 of each issue of the Footwear Industry Report o are important enough to always merit attention by your company's managers, this is because when the benchmarks for one or more measures reveal that your company's outcome(s) were too far out-of-line and almost certainly impaired/weakened your company's overall performance, then your management team is well-advised to consider taking corrective action in the next decision round are of considerable value to the managers of companies pursuing a low-cost strategy but are of very limited value to company managers employing other types of strategies. are most valuable to the managers of companies whose cost benchmarks are above the industry-average benchmarks and/or who are looking for evidence to confirm a suspected need to secure more celebrity endorsements in the upcoming decision round and steal branded market share away from rivals in one or more regions are of little value because the benchmarking data do not identify which companies have the lowest/highest costs for any of the reported cost benchmarks. are of considerable value to the managers of companies whose prior-year EPS was below the industry-average benchmark in one of more geographic regions.