16x+40y= ?
Pls help i will give u brainliest

Answer:

the probability the emergency cooling system will work when needed is 80.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

 Given the data in the question;

the probability that someone will actually push the emergency button in an emergency from 90% to 99% of the time

E\(_4\) ⇒ Someone will actually push the emergency button in an emergency

P(E\(_4\)) = 90% = 0.90

E\(_4\) : Someone will actually push the emergency button in an emergency

P(E\(_4\)) = 99% = 0.99

P(E) = P(E1) × P(E2) × P(E3) × P(E4) × P(E5)

we substitute

P(E) = 92% × 94% × 96%  99% × 98%  

P(E) = 0.8054

P(E) = 80.5%

Therefore, the probability the emergency cooling system will work when needed is 80.5%

Answer:

the answer is a u s 4

Step-by-step explanation:

that the answer right there

Using Pythagorean theorem, the length of the ladder is 10ft

In mathematical terms, if y and z are the lengths of the two shorter sides (also known as the legs) of a right triangle, and x is the length of the hypotenuse, the Pythagorean theorem can be expressed as:

x² = y² + z²

In the questions given, the only one we can use Pythagorean theorem to solve is the one with ladder since it's forms a right-angle triangle.

To calculate the length of the ladder, we can write the formula as;

x² = 8² + 6²

x² = 64 + 36

x² = 100

x = √100

x = 10

The length of the ladder is 10 feet

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Answer:yes

Step-by-step explanation:66

The given statement  A U (B - C) = (A U B) - C is true.

A set is collection of well defined objects.

According to the given question we have to state whether A ∪ ( B - C ) = ( A ∪ B ) - C.

Lets consider we have three sets A, B and C and we also consider they intersect each other.

( B - C ) represents the elements which belongs to B but not in C.

∴ A ∪ ( B - C ) represents the no. of elements which belongs to the set B but not in C union the no. of elements which belongs to A.

AND

( A ∪ B ) - C represents no. of elements which belongs to A or B but not in C.

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Answer:

\(67\frac{23}{28}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\(36-\left[100\div \:560-32\left(8\div \:4-1\right)\right]\\\\100\div \:560-32\left(8\div \:4-1\right)\\\\=100\div \:560-32\cdot \:1\\\\=\frac{100}{560}-32\cdot \:1\\\\=\frac{100}{560}-32\\\\=-\frac{891}{28}\\\\\\=36-\left(-\frac{891}{28}\right)\\\\36-\left(-\frac{891}{28}\right)\\\\=36+\frac{891}{28}\\\\\frac{36\cdot \:28}{28}+\frac{891}{28}\\\\\frac{36\cdot \:28+891}{28}\\\\=\frac{1899}{28}\\\\\\\frac{1899}{28}(1899\div28)=67\frac{23}{28}\)

Answer:

((5 * 5) + 5 - 5 - 5) * 5

Step-by-step explanation:

((5 * 5) + 5 - 5 - 5) * 5

((25) + 5 - 5 - 5) * 5

(30 - 5 - 5) * 5

(25 - 5) * 5

20 * 5

100

Probability of spinning pink on both spins = 1/4 and Probability of not spinning orange on either spin = 9/16.

What is probability?

Probability is a measure of the likelihood of an event occurring. It is a number between 0 and 1, where 0 means the event is impossible and 1 means the event is certain to happen.

If a four-part spinner is spun twice, there are 16 possible outcomes (4 options on the first spin, multiplied by 4 options on the second spin).

To find the probability of spinning pink on both spins, we need to first determine how many outcomes result in pink on both spins. If we label the four parts of the spinner A, B, C, and D, and assume that pink is on part A, then there are four possible outcomes where pink appears on both spins: AA, AB, AC, and AD. Each of these outcomes has a probability of 1/16, since there are 16 total possible outcomes. So the probability of spinning pink on both spins is:

Probability of spinning pink on both spins = (number of outcomes where pink appears on both spins) / (total number of possible outcomes)

Probability of spinning pink on both spins = 4/16

Probability of spinning pink on both spins = 1/4

To find the probability of not spinning orange either spin, we need to determine how many outcomes do not have orange. If we assume that orange is on part B, then there are three outcomes on the first spin that do not result in orange: AB, AC, and AD. On the second spin, there are again three outcomes that do not result in orange: BA, CA, and DA. So there are a total of 3 x 3 = 9 outcomes where orange does not appear on either spin.

Again, each of these outcomes has a probability of 1/16, so the probability of not spinning orange on either spin is:

Probability of not spinning orange on either spin = (number of outcomes where orange does not appear on either spin) / (total number of possible outcomes)

Probability of not spinning orange on either spin = 9/16

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Answer:

x=3

Step-by-step explanation:

10x=30

Divide both sides by the co-efficient of x which is 10

10x = 30/10

10

x =3

Aliyyah.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This problem has been solved! You'll get a detailed solution from a subject matter expert that helps you learn core concepts.

0.92 , 0.479 , 0.387 , 0.2

[See the last first digit after the decimal. I chose 0.92 since 9 is the greater than 2,3 and 4]

Answer:

We use the rule,

\((a^b)^c = a^{bc}\)

a. (10^7)²

\((10^7)^2 = 10^{(7)(2)} = 10^{14}\)

10^14

b. (10^9)³

\((10^9)^3 = 10^{(9)(3)} = 10^{27}\)

10^27

c. (10^6)³

\(10^{(6)(3)}= 10^{18}\)

10^18

d. (10^2)³

\(10^{(2)(3)} = 10^{6}\)

10^6

e. (10³)²

\(10^{(3)(2)}=10^{6}\)

10^6

f. (10^5)^7

\(10^{(5)(7)} = 10^{35}\)

10^35

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The concentration will be 0.5 mg/L at 40 hours.

2. The complete table is:

3. We deduce that a reasonable domain for this quadratic function is t ≥ 0 or {0, ∞}.

4. The intravenous drug must be administered to the patient between the time interval 1.25 ≤ t ≤ 20.

To get this, we will determine time when the concentration would be 0.5 mg/L. We will substitute value of the concentration and then solve the quadratic function for time (t):

c(t) = 20t/(t² + 4)

0.5 = 20t/(t² + 4)

0.5(t² + 4) = 20t

0.5t² + 2 = 20t

0.5t² + 2 - 20t = 0

t² + 4 - 40t = 0

t² - 40t + 4 = 0

Time t = 38.8998 ≈ 40 hours.

We will now complete table of values:

t        0    2      4     6     8         10        12        14     16        18      20

c(t)    0    5     4      3     2.35   1.92     1.62     1.4    1.23     1.10   1.00

Since the concentration of the drug at time, t = 0 is equal to 0 mg/L and the concentration actually never becomes 0 for any value of t, we can logically deduce that a reasonable domain for this quadratic function is t ≥ 0 or {0, ∞}.

Furthermore, the intravenous drug must be administered to the patient between the time interval 1.25 ≤ t ≤ 20 in order to maintain a concentration above 1 mg/L and below 8 mg/L.

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Answer:

Please find the graph in the attachment file.

Step-by-step explanation:

In this question, certain data is missing, that's why we define its diagram only.

Answer:

she made $583 commission last week

she made $30313

Step-by-step explanation:

5300 * .11=583

583 * 52 weeks =30316

Large boxes: L, 45 lb

Small boxes: S, 30 lb

There are 125 boxes, then:

The total weight in boxes is 4575 lb:

Then, the system of equations is:

From (1), L = 125 - S, so we use this on (2):

Using this result on (1):

There are 55 large boxes and 70 small boxes

Answer:

(9, -13.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

It's given in the question that a quadrilateral RSTV is dilated with a scale factor of 1.5 with respect to the origin to form R'S'T'V'.

Rule for dilation is,

(x, y) → (kx, ky)

where 'k' is the scale factor.

If vertex R of the quadrilateral is (6, -9),

By the given rule of dilation,

R(6, 9) → R'[(1.5 × 6), -(1.5 × 9)]

           → R'(9, -13.5)

Therefore, Option given in bottom right (9, -13.5) will be the answer.

Answer:

t = 6.8 years

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for compound interest is

\(A(t)=P(1+r/n)^n^t\), where P is the principal/amount invested, r is the interest rate, n is the number of compound periods per year (4 for quarterly), and t in the time in years.

We know that A = $5900, P = $4000, and r = 0.0575 (we must convert the percentage to a decimal).  We must solve for t and round to the nearest tenth:

\(5900=4000(1+0.0575/4)^(^4^t^)\\\\59/40=(1623/1600)^4^t\\\\log(59/40)=log(1623/1600^4^t)\\\\log(59/40)=4t*log(1623/1600)\\\\log(59/40)/log(1623/1600)=4t\\\\1/4(log(59/40)/log(1623/1600))=t\\\\6.80773607=t\\\\6.8=t\)

Answer:

above is the solution to the question

Answer:

7x/10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.6 = 60% probability that he or she studies on a weeknight.

Step-by-step explanation:

We solve this question treating these events as Venn probabilities.

I am going to say that:

Probability A: Probability of a student studying on weeknights.

Probability B: Probability of a student studying on weekends.

Forty-two percent of students said they study on weeknights and weekends

This means that \(P(A \cap B) = 0.42\)

47% said they studied on weekends

This means that \(P(B) = 0.47\)

65% said they study either on weeknights or weekends.

This is \(P(A \cup B) = 0.65\)

If you were to pick one student at random, what is the probability that he or she studies on a weeknight?

This is P(A), and the equation used is:

\(P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A \cap B)\)

Considering the values we have:

\(0.65 = P(A) + 0.47 - 0.42\)

\(0.05 + P(A) = 0.65\)

\(P(A) = 0.6\)

0.6 = 60% probability that he or she studies on a weeknight.

Answer: 60% joaobezerra Is Right, and Confirmed by Buzz (Acceleration Education)

Step-by-step explanation:

We solve this question by treating these events as Venn probabilities. Forty-two percent of students said they study on weeknights and weekends. This means that 47% said they studied on weekends. This means that 65% said they study either on weeknights or weekends. This is If you were to pick one student at random, what is the probability that he or she studies on a weeknight?

0.6 = 60% that he or she studies on a weeknight.

Answer:

20% of 250 is 50

Answer:

The taxable income is £3000 - £500 = £2500.

The tax paid at the rate of 5 penny per pound is:

0.05 x £2500 = £125

Therefore, the total tax paid by the man is £125. Answer: A. £125

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

DO NOT ask questions here its a full scam my guy I for asking a hard question TRY Khan or RBL Groups

Step-by-step explanation:

I GOT 100+ HELP ON RBLX GROUPS IN 24 HOURS

Answer:

7/20

Step-by-step explanation:

Because 35% is 35/100 and then you it and you get 7/20

Answer:

Exact Form:

20/10

Decimal Form:

2.9

Mixed Number Form:

2 9/10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6.24 x \(10^{-7}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

0.000000624 in scientific notation is 6.24 x \(10^{-7}\)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The resulting number is in scientific notation. In this case, the number is 6.24 * 10^-7.

Answer:

1:2

Step-by-step explanation:

You do 4:2 then divide 2 on each side which is 1:2

Answer:

x - intercept = - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

the equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

given

x - 2y = 7 ( subtract x from both sides )

- 2y = - x + 7 ( divide through by - 2 )

y = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x + \(\frac{7}{2}\) ← in slope- intercept form

with slope m = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

given a line with slope m then the slope of a line perpendicular to it is

\(m_{perpendicular}\) = - \(\frac{1}{m}\) = - \(\frac{1}{\frac{1}{2} }\) = - 2 , then

y = - 2x + c ← is the partial equation of the perpendicular line\to find c substitute (- 3, 4 ) into the partial equation

4 = 6 + c ⇒ c = 4 - 6 = - 2

y = - 2x - 2 ← equation of perpendicular line

to find the x- intercept let y = 0 into the equation and solve for x

- 2x - 2 = 0 ( add 2 to both sides )

- 2x = 2 ( divide both sides by - 2 )

x = - 1

the x- intercept of the perpendicular line is - 1 or (- 1, 0 )

Answer: let me explain!

Step-by-step explanation: So this might seem really confusing at first, but it’s actually suuuuuuper easy :P

So, if you think about it, every five seconds the amount of peanuts…well I don’t know how to explain it but let me show you this with numbers.
(4x2)x2x2x2 and so on. The number multiplies by two every five seconds from there. So figure out how many groups of five second there are in 100 seconds by dividing!

It’s 20!

So since 5 happens 20 times, and every time 5 happens, 2 happens, 2 also happens 20 times! (If that makes any sense)

So that answer would be 8x*twenty twos*

Which is…*drumroll please*

8,388,608
I even double checked!

And for the briefcase skeleton thing

She needs to try it 25 times because there are 5 books and each book can be switched with the other 4 times if the first one doesn’t work, therefore you need to multiply and the equation would be 5^2, or in other words, 25.
Don’t forget ur units!

Hope this helps :P

Answer:

nice handwriting

Step-by-step explanation: