a human, animal, or plant's young or offspring: His countless progeny are dispersed all throughout the nation. Alternative words: issue, offspring.
By dividing the total number of recombinant gametes by the total number of gametes, the linkage distance is determined. b. Over 100 map units can be added to the total of several modest map distances between genes. A and d will be separated by 100 map units, for instance, if a and b are 30 map units apart, b and c are 40 map units apart, and c and d are 30 map units apart. The genetic map distance (1 cM) that corresponds to a 1% recombination frequency is known as a "map unit." Although the maximal recombination frequency is 50%, big chromosomes may have cumulative map distances that are considerably more than 50cM.
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which structure would not be a component of the spermatic cord? group of answer choices ductus (vas) deferens cremaster muscle bulbourethral gland testicular nerve pampiniform plexus
The structure that would not be a component of the spermatic cord is the bulbourethral gland (option 3).
The spermatic cord is a structure that extends from the abdominal cavity into the scrotum and contains various components related to the male reproductive system. It consists of several structures that facilitate the transport and support of the testes. The components of the spermatic cord include the ductus (vas) deferens, which carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra, the testicular nerve, which provides innervation to the testes, and the pampiniform plexus, a network of veins that helps regulate testicular temperature. The cremaster muscle is also part of the spermatic cord and helps to raise and lower the testes.
However, the bulbourethral gland (option 3), also known as Cowper's gland, is not a component of the spermatic cord. It is located within the pelvis and produces a lubricating fluid that is released during sexual arousal.
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function of the ribosomes
The two primary jobs of ribosomes are message decoding and peptide bond building. These two functions are carried out by the ribosomal subunits, which are two big, unequal-sized ribonucleoprotein particles (RNPs).
What is ribosomes?Ribosomes, which are substantial molecules in charge of producing biological proteins, are present in all cells. Ribosomes mix amino acids in the order specified by the codons of messenger RNA molecules to produce polypeptide chains. and odors in odor of the the to. The the od, and to the to the the tos previusly A ribosome functions as a microscopic machine that makes proteins. Nucleic acids and unique proteins make up ribosomes. Translation of information and the linking of amino acids are the two key steps in the production of proteins. Knowledge translation and the joining of amino acids.
What is the function of ribosome and who produce ribosome in the cell?At a ribosome, an intercellular structure made of both RNA and protein, the process of producing proteins occurs in a cell. The messengers RNA (mRNA) sequencing is decoded by ribosome, which then translates the genetic code into a particular string of amino acids that form extended chains & fold to form proteins.
The nucleolus is a spherical component of the cell's nucleus whose main job is to assemble and generate ribosomes. The nucleus's nucleolus is its darkly coloured region. It produces ribosome-forming rRNA, which travels from there to the cytoplasm and combines with proteins. Thus, it may be said that the nucleolus is the area of the cell where ribosomes are formed.
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Tom with type AB blood marries Anna. They have two children: Eric with type B blood and Jessica with type A blood. Anna's father Paul has type O blood, and her mother Elizabeth has type A blood.
a. What are the genotypes of Tom and Paul?
b. What are the possible genotypes and phenotypes of Anna?
c. What is the genotype of Eric?
d. Is it possible to define Jessica's genotype and phenotype based on the information provided? Why or why not?
The genes revived from parents by an offspring form its genotype.
What is genotype?The term genotype refers to the sum total of the genes that an organism inherits from its parents. Looking at the information in the question;
The genotype of Tom is IAIB while the genotype of Anna is IOIOThe possible genotype of Anna IOIO while her possible phenotype is also IOIO.The genotype of Eric is IBIO.Yes, it is possible to define Jessica's genotype and phenotype from the information provided regarded her blood group.Learn more about genotype:https://brainly.com/question/20730322
1.How would you describe the relationship between the eagle and the hare?
2.According to the video, why can't the eagle afford any mistakes?
3.How could an overpopulation of eagles affect the hare population?
1)Describe the relationship between a predator population and the population of its prey.
2)What is a keystone species? Give an example.
3)What is a limiting factor? Give an example.
4)What is the role of camouflage in prey and predator?
Explanation:
1. Remember, the video began with the words, "For one death, for the other, are all decided in an instance." Meaning, both could result in each other harm. There is
2. The eagle can't afford to make any mistakes because we are told, "even the slightest injury can leave it too weak to hunt and cause it to stave."
3. More eagles means more hares are hunted, and as more hares are been killed, the lesser the hare population.
4. The increase in the predator population leads to a reduction in the population of the prey. In other words, as more predators start looking for prey to eat, the prey population decreases.
5. In simple words, a keystone species is a type of predator whose presence in the community has far-reaching effects on other species in the community. One common example is the sea star species found in coral reefs, see stars feed on mussel and sea urchin thereby helping to regulate the population of mussels and sea urchin. Doing this ultimately helps other species survive.
6. A limiting factor is an attribute or factor that reduces the exponential growth in the population of an organism.
7. Camouflage allows preys to hid from their predators. Usually made possible by their physical appearance.
Which of the following is not true about meiosis?
A. Requires a male and a female to reproduce
B. More complex than mitosis
C. Muscle cells reproduce in this way
D. Final cells have half of the DNA
Answer:
Require a male and a female to reproduce
Explanation:
Gametes are produced by mitosis (not meiosis) and after fertilization a diploid zygote is created. ... It can only divide by meiosis to produce haploid cells once more, which then produce the main adult body. In plants and some algae, there is a multicellular diploid and a multicellular haploid period of the life cycle.
How does the arrangement of skeletal structures differ in sea urchins, sea stars, and brittle stars? How do these differences establish the way these animals move?
Sea urchins, sea stars, and brittle stars all have different skeletal arrangements and compositions. Sea urchins have a spherical, calcareous shell called a test, which is covered in spines.
Sea stars have a central disc and five or more arms that are attached to their body, while brittle stars have a central disc and five long, slender arms that are distinct from their body.
These skeletal variations in bone design determine how these creatures move. Sea urchins move by using their spines to crawl along surfaces, while sea stars move by using their tube feet and muscles to push and pull themselves along. Brittle stars move by wriggling their arms and using their tube feet to grip surfaces, allowing them to move quickly and efficiently.
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The epiglottis acts as another set of vocal folds. You can vibrate it to make sound. True or False
The statement "The epiglottis acts as another set of vocal folds. You can vibrate it to make sound" is FALSE.
The epiglottis does not act as another set of vocal folds and cannot be vibrated to produce sound. The epiglottis is a flap-like structure located at the base of the tongue, above the larynx. Its main function is to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway during swallowing. When we swallow, the epiglottis folds over the opening of the larynx, directing the food or liquid towards the esophagus.
Sound production, on the other hand, involves the vocal folds within the larynx. The vocal folds, also known as vocal cords, are two folds of mucous membrane that can vibrate and produce sound when air passes through them. These vibrations are then shaped and modulated by other structures in the throat, mouth, and nasal cavity to produce speech and various vocal sounds.
Therefore, the epiglottis is not involved in sound production, and it does not contribute to creating vibrations for making sound. Its role is solely focused on protecting the airway during swallowing.
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what is biological classification? explain it
Answer:
Biological classification is the process by which scientists group living organisms. Organisms are classified based on how similar they are. Historically, similarity was determined by examining the physical characteristics of an organism but modern classification uses a variety of techniques including genetic analysis. I hope this helps you
A student designed a model of active transport. In order to refine the model to be more accurate, what should be added to the diagram?
In order to refine the model of an active transport to be more accurate, the addition of ATP being converted to ADP should be added to the model to show that energy is being used to transport materials and is therefore denoted as option B.
What is Active transport?This is referred to as the movement of molecules from a region of lower concentration to that of a region of higher concentration against a gradient with the use of external energy.
ATP being converted to ADP means that energy was used up to transport materials thereby making it the correct choice.
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The options are:
The addition of ADP being converted to ATP should be added to the model to show that energy is being stored during the process.The addition of ATP being converted to ADP should be added to the model to show that energy is being used to transport materials.Nothing should be addedSelect the statement that is incorrect about condensed structures. O Condensed structures are most often used for a compound having a chain of atoms bonded together rather than a ring.
O In condensed structures, all of the atoms are drawn in, but the two electron bond lines are generally omitted. O For condensed structures, lone pairs on heterostoms are included
The statement that is incorrect about condensed structures is "For condensed structures, lone pairs on heteroatoms are included."
In condensed structures, lone pairs on heteroatoms are generally not included. Condensed structures are a simplified way of representing organic molecules, where the atoms are drawn in, but the two-electron bond lines are usually omitted for simplicity. Lone pairs, which represent non-bonding electron pairs, are typically not shown in condensed structures. This simplification helps to make the structure representation more concise and easier to interpret. Therefore, the inclusion of lone pairs on heteroatoms in condensed structures is not a common practice.
Therefore, "For condensed structures, lone pairs on heteroatoms are included." is incorrect statement about condensed structures.
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Where is DNA located in your body?
Answer:
DNA is in the nucleus of nearly every cell in your body.
Explanation:
DNA is housed in the nucleus because it is the genetic material and needs to be protected.
Answer:
The DNA is located in the nucleus.
Explanation:
Humans and animals are EUKARYOTES which means we have a nucleus, where the DNA is stored. PROKARYOTES do not have a nucleus to the DNA is stored in the cytoplasm.
~Anna
in the space labeled d, draw the product(s) of meiosis ii, assuming that cytokinesis has occurred.
Meiosis is the type of cell division that results in the formation of haploid gametes. It occurs in two phases. The first phase is called meiosis I and the second phase is called meiosis II. Here, we'll talk about meiosis II and the products of meiosis II.
Assuming that cytokinesis has occurred, the products of meiosis II can be drawn as follows:In the diagram above, it is assumed that the cell that undergoes meiosis is diploid (2n) and has four chromatids. It is also assumed that crossing over has occurred during meiosis I. After meiosis I, two cells are produced, each containing half the number of chromosomes as the original cell.
In meiosis II, each cell divides into two daughter cells. The chromatids in each daughter cell are no longer identical because crossing over has occurred, and each chromatid has a combination of maternal and paternal genetic material. The end result of meiosis II is four haploid daughter cells, each with one chromatid from each homologous chromosome.
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Read the passage from William Jennings Bryan's "Cross of Gold" speech.
Determine which two highlighted sentences would best support Bryan's claim that cities need farms more than farms need cities.
URGENT!!!HURRRY!!!!!!PLEASE!!!Will mark you Brainlest!!!!
"There are two ideas of government. There are those who believe that if you just legislate to make the well-to-do prosperous, that their prosperity will leak through on those below. The Democratic idea has been that if you legislate to make the masses prosperous their prosperity will find its way up and through every class that rests upon it. You come to us and tell us that the great cities are in favor of the gold standard. I tell you that the great cities rest upon these broad and fertile prairies. Burn down your cities and leave our farms, and your cities will spring up again as if by magic. But destroy our farms and the grass will grow in the streets of every city in the country."
The sentences that shows that the cities needs the farms more than the farms need the cities would be:
great cities rest upon these broad and fertile prairies.destroy our farms and the grass will grow in the streets of every city in the country.What was the cross of gold speech?The cross of gold speech can be defined as the speech that was made by William Bryan as he intended to be able to get the speech to serve him two purposes.
First he was in agreement of having silver to be a part of the economy of the United States just as silver was also used at the time.
Also he wanted the speech to be able to get him the nomination as the president from the democratic party.
In the speech we can see the two points that he made on farming. He said that the great cities of the nations relied on the fertile prairie lands and if the people should burn the farms they would have grasses growing on all parts of the cities in the nation.
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4. Complete the flowchart to show how feedback controls regulate the thyroid gland.
5. Explain how feedback control regulates the rate of metabolism.
4). Hypothalamus→TRH→Anterior pituitary→TSH.
5).The brain stimulates the production and secretion t produce TSH, that prompts the thyroid to produce thyroxine, which speeds up metabolism.
What functions does the thyroid gland perform?The thyroid gland creates hormones that govern the body's metabolic rate, which affects bone growth and maintenance, heart, muscle, and digestive function. A sufficient intake of iron from of the diet is necessary for its proper operation.
What are the primary thyroid symptoms?Hypothyroid patients may observe that their heartbeat is lower than usual. The heart rate may increase as a result of hyperthyroidism. Additionally, it may result in heart palpitations of various kinds as well as a rise in blood pressure and a pounding sensation.
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part 3....
Write a lab report based on your findings for this lab. Include the following elements in your lab report in the order listed.
Title: The title should describe the topic of the lab report.
Introduction and hypothesis: Briefly state the purpose of the lab and any important question(s) to be answered. Restate the hypothesis you made at the beginning of the lab in this section.
Procedures: Briefly describe or list the procedures you followed earlier to conduct your experiment or collect data.
Results: State the results of your work, including whether or not they support your hypothesis. Include all data, tables, graphs, sketches or any observations made during the course of the lab.
Conclusion: Write a concise summary of at least one paragraph to conclude your lab. This should include an analysis of your collected data.
Food Insecurity and Hunger Management in [Insert Area Name]. the hypothesis is that the prevalence of food insecurity in this area is higher than the existing efforts to address hunger and food management.
Hypothesis:
The purpose of this lab report is to investigate the prevalence of food insecurity and the effectiveness of existing hunger and food management efforts in [Insert Area Name]. The hypothesis is that the prevalence of food insecurity in this area is higher than the existing efforts to address hunger and food management.
Procedures:
To collect data, a survey was conducted among a sample of [Insert Number] residents in the area. The survey consisted of questions related to household income, access to food, frequency of hunger, and knowledge of local food assistance programs. The survey was conducted online and distributed through social media and community groups. The data collected was analyzed using statistical software.
Results:
The results of the survey showed that [Insert Percentage] of respondents reported experiencing hunger at least once in the past month, and [Insert Percentage] reported experiencing hunger on a regular basis. Additionally, [Insert Percentage] of respondents reported that they did not have enough money to buy food for themselves or their families.
Furthermore, only [Insert Percentage] of respondents reported being aware of local food assistance programs, indicating a lack of knowledge about resources available to address food insecurity.
These results support the hypothesis that the prevalence of food insecurity in [Insert Area Name] is higher than the existing efforts to address hunger and food management.
Conclusion:
The findings of this lab report demonstrate the need for increased efforts to address food insecurity in [Insert Area Name]. This could include expanding awareness of existing food assistance programs and implementing new programs to provide more comprehensive support to those in need. By addressing food insecurity, we can improve the overall health and well-being of residents in our community.
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A specimen is received for a prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. The 5 mL tube has 2.5 mL of blood in it. Expected test results are
The expected test results for the specimen received for a prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are not possible to be determined accurately because of the ratio of blood to anticoagulant present in the tube.
The anticoagulant used in the tube is sodium citrate, and the usual ratio of blood to anticoagulant used for prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time is 9:1. This ratio assures that the clotting factor in the blood is neutralized by the anticoagulant added to the sample to prevent the blood from clotting.
The 5 mL tube has 2.5 mL of blood in it, which is only half of the usual amount. This indicates that the anticoagulant added to the sample is not sufficient to neutralize the clotting factor in the blood present. As a result, the expected test results cannot be determined accurately.
Additionally, the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time will be incorrect if the volume of the blood sample and anticoagulant is not proportionate. Therefore, the test should be repeated with a specimen that contains the appropriate volume of blood and anticoagulant in the correct ratio.
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At what position in the amplicon is there a differene between the taster and non taster alleles?
In molecular biology, an amplicon is a piece of DNA or RNA that is the source and/or product of amplification or replication events.
It can be formed artificially, using various methods including polymerase chain reactions (PCR) or ligase chain reactions (LCR), or naturally through gene duplication.
The position in the amplicon where there is a difference between the taster and non-taster alleles depends on the specific gene and variant being studied.
To determine this, it is necessary to identify the specific gene and variant associated with the taster and non-taster alleles.
Once identified, the position of the difference can be determined by comparing the nucleotide sequences of the two alleles.
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Please help!!!!
c.) explain why that happens?
d.) How old is a rock sample that contains uranium-235 and lead-207 in equal amounts?
Uranium is used to determine a rock's age.
The uranium in rocks decays at a steady rate, producing subatomic particles and turning into lead. Scientists estimated the age of the globe at 4.6 billion years by examining the uranium-to-lead ratios in the oldest rocks on the planet. U-235 dating reveals that a rock is 2.84 billion years old.
Why, given that rocks are so old, can the age of rocks be determined using uranium-238?
The age of the rock increases with lead content. Since uranium-238 has a lengthy half-life, only the oldest rocks can be dated. Because so little of the uranium will decay, this method is unreliable for determining the age of rocks that are younger than 10 million years.
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A genetic disorder is caused by a mutation on DNA.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Genetic disorders can be caused by a mutation in one gene(monogenic disorder) by mutations in multiple genes
Stretch your thinking, right, and olve a diviion problem that divide the four digit number by two digit number how did you etimate the firt digit of the quotient
The first digit of quotient is 7. As first three digits (365) can be divided by 47.
Quotients are the results of dividing two numbers, one by the other. We can take advantage of the fact that division can be seen as multiplication, but with the multiplicative inverse of the denominator.
A 4-digit number must be divided by a 2-digit number.
Place the dividend (3654) beneath the Place of the divisor (47).
The dividend's first two numbers may be (36). 36 cannot be divided by 47 to get a complete number because it is less than 47.
then subtract the dividend's first three digits (365). Seven 47s are contained in the number 365.
(7 x 47=329)
(8 x 47=376).
Place the 7 now directly above the 5 and above the division bracket, and we will get the solution to 77.
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All of the moths that live in a forest of light colored tree bark have light gray wings. One of the moths is born with black wings. What is the black wing color most likely caused by?
The black wing color in a moth that lives in a forest of light-colored tree bark is most likely caused by a genetic mutation. Genetic mutation is a sudden change in the genetic material of an organism. It can occur naturally due to errors during DNA replication, mutagens, or exposure to radiation.
In moths, genetic mutations can cause variations in physical characteristics, such as color, pattern, or size. The forest's light-colored tree bark is the natural selection factor that favors moths with light gray wings. The light gray color of the wings provides better camouflage, which protects the moth from predators. However, the black wing color can make the moth more visible to predators and increase its risk of predation.
As a result, the moth with black wings may have lower survival rates than moths with light gray wings. The low survival rate of the moth with black wings can reduce the frequency of the mutation in the population, leading to a reduction in the proportion of black-winged moths over time. Hence, the black wing color is most likely caused by a genetic mutation that occurred randomly.
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Which describes the correct procedure when converting a number from scientific notation to standard notation if the power of 10 is -10
A). Move the decimal point to the left
B). Move the decimal point to the right
C). Add 20 to the number
D). Subtract 20 from the number
Answer: The answer is B.
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation:
I took it on EDGE and got it right
Hope this helps!!!
The majority of the human body is made up of molecules that contain H,
C, O, N, and P. In your own words why is a diet of only carbohydrates insufficient for long
term survival?
Answer:
In the absence of carbohydrates in the diet, your body will convert protein (or other non-carbohydrate substances) into glucose, so it's not just carbohydrates that can raise your blood sugar and insulin levels. If you consume more calories than you burn, you'll gain weight.
By dissecting an owl pellet, you can learn __.
A) what the owl is drinking
B) whether the food an owl is eating is diseased
C) what type of animals the owl ate
D) where the owl lives
Answer:
C. what type of animal the owl ate
Under normal conditions, the proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs all of the glucose, lactate, and amino acids in the filtrate and 65% of the Na+ and water. true or false?
False. Under normal conditions, the proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs almost all of the glucose, lactate, and amino acids in the filtrate, not all.
Additionally, it reabsorbs about 65% of the filtered Na+ and water, but not all of it. The reabsorption of these substances is crucial for maintaining the body's balance of water and solutes. The proximal convoluted tubule is highly specialized for reabsorption, with its epithelial cells possessing numerous microvilli and transport proteins that facilitate the reabsorption process. This reabsorption ensures that valuable substances are retained in the body, while waste products and excess ions are excreted in the urine.
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If a mouse with two copies of the Clock mutation is placed in a lab where the lights come on each day at 7:00 AM and go off each day at 7:00 PM, the activity rhythm of this mouse will display
a 24-hour rhythm.
When a mouse with two copies of the Clock mutation is placed in a lab where the lights come on each day at 7:00 AM and go off each day at 7:00 PM, the activity rhythm of this mouse will display in 24 hours.
Zip, a brand-new hamster mutant, has an 8-hour daily rhythm when there are no light cues. An adult hamster with the tau mutation (with its own SCN lesioned) would have an 8-hour period for its rhythm if the embryonic SCN from a healthy animal were transplanted into its brain.
In animals, the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) serves as the main circadian pacemaker. In scattered cultures, individual SCN neurons can produce their own circadian rhythms of clock gene expression and neuronal firing. However, enough membrane depolarization, intracellular calcium, and cAMP concentrations are required for SCN rhythmicity.
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58:25
Jasmine and Marcus are at the park, and Jasmine makes the following statements. Which of them is an inference?
The leaves are green.
The flowers are breathtaking.
The plant is producing oxygen.
The bush has thorns.
Next
Save and Exit
Submit
Mark this and retum
Answer:
The flowers are breathtaking.
Explanation:
The leaves are green is an observation. The plant producing oxygen is a scientific fact. The bush having thorns is also an observation.
On the other hand, the flowers being breathtaking is simply a matter of opinion. So, it is an inference.
Hope this helps!
a student has everything he needs to make cdna of a gene of interest. he starts with an sample of mrna from the cells containing the gene, and proceeds with the experiment. at the end of the procedure, he finds that the molecule he has synthesized contains uracil. what was his mistake?
The student has made a mistake in the synthesis of cDNA. The cDNA molecule should contain thymine, not uracil.
Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA. DNA contains thymine. The cdna molecule will not be able to bind to the dna template. This will result in a lower yield of cDna and potentially lower quality cDNA. If the mRNA sample is not pure, then other nucleic acids present can be reverse transcribed into cDNA, resulting in a final molecule that contains uracil.
Another possibility is that the student did not properly prime the reaction, meaning that they did not add the necessary nucleotides and enzymes for the reaction to occur. without a proper primer, uracil can be incorporated into the cDNA molecule.
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What are the products of photosynthesis?
carbon dioxide and sugar
carbon dioxide and water
oxygen and water
glucose and oxygen
In which organelle does cellular respiration finish occurring?
cytoplasm
nucleus
mitochondria
chloroplast
What happens during cellular respiration?
Water and carbon dioxide are converted into energy.
Oxygen is released into the air.
Carbohydrates are released into the bloodstream.
Glucose is broken down, releasing energy.
Photosynthesis and respiration have opposite equations.
True
False
Cellular respiration occurs in both plants and animals.
True
False
The reactants are what are produced in the equation.
True
False
Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration?
glycolysis
Citric acid cycle (aka Kreb's cycle)
electron transport chain
fermentation
Light-DEPENDENT reactions do NOT involve which of the following?
sunlight
chlorophyll
water
carbon dioxide
Glucose is the preferred source of energy for the cell.
True
False
Answer:
The products are oxygen and glucose.
Cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondria
During cellular respiration, glucose is broken down, releasing energy
True
True
False
Citric acid cycle
Sunlight
False
Explanation:
Differences between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells
Answer:
eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus and prokaryotic cells do not.
Explanation:
Eukaryotes have many membrane-bound organelles while prokaryotes have no membrane-bound organelles.