Answer:
Yogi bear
Explanation:
Answer:
1. Vinyasa Yoga. ...
Kundalini Yoga. ..
Anusara Yoga.
2. Pranayama is the practice of breath regulation. It's a main component of yoga, an exercise for physical and mental wellness. In Sanskrit, “prana” means life energy and “Yama” m
3.
Improves Your Flexibility. If you've ever watched a yoga class or people doing yoga poses, one thing you probably noticed is that they're pretty flexible. ...
Develop Your Strength. Develop your strength. ...
Reduce Your Stress Level. Reduce your stress level. ...
Increase Your Sex Drive. Increase your sex drive. ...
May Help You Lose Weight.
What are three ways you can lower the risk of unintentional poisoning?
To prevent poisoning, store pharmaceuticals and chemicals safely, dispose of hazardous waste correctly, and become knowledgeable about frequent causes of poisoning.
What are three strategies to avoid becoming poisoned?Never clean food or food packaging using commercial cleaning agents. Before, during, and after making food, wash your hands and the kitchen surfaces. Always wash your hands and the counters before making any meal. Maintain the proper temperature range for meals.
Which of the following is a method of poison prevention?Safely keeping medications, chemicals, and cleaning supplies can help prevent poisoning. The first step in preventing poisoning is to put medications, chemicals, and cleaning supplies safely above your child's head in a locked cabinet.
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Which of the following is an example of a soft skill
Answer:
Helping a customer by answering a question, Effective communication skills will be helpful through the interview process and in your career. Also, employers highly value people who can resolve issues quickly and effectively.
Explanation:
Answer:
Working with a project team
Explanation:
it's not exactly word for word, but i got it right . soft skill is being able to work well with others
the intrusive recollection of events we wish we could forget is known as:
The intrusive recollection of events we wish we could forget is known as involuntary or intrusive memories. These memories often involve distressing or traumatic experiences that individuals would prefer to suppress or eliminate from their consciousness. Involuntary memories can manifest as flashbacks, vivid images, or recurring thoughts, and they can be triggered by various cues associated with the original event.
Involuntary memories are commonly observed in conditions such as post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and other trauma-related disorders. They can be intrusive and disruptive to daily life, causing distress and emotional discomfort. Treatment approaches such as cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and exposure therapy aim to help individuals manage and process these intrusive memories effectively, reducing their impact and improving overall well-being.
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Ways to prevent a physical hazard include all of the following except:
A. Effective hair restraint
B. Refrigerate potentially hazardous foods
C. Minimize jewelry through the facility
D. Keep nails trimmed and clean
This question seems to be related to food safety and handling. Therefore, option B is not relevant to preventing physical hazards. Refrigeration of potentially hazardous foods is related to preventing biological hazards. The correct answer is B.
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Select the qualities that are most useful for therapeutic healthcare workers to possess.
good driving skills
helpfulness
strength
loud voice
good communication skills
patience
good filing skills
good people skills
(Introduction to Health Science - EL3601)
Choose the correct abnormal respirations being described. A patient is having difficult and labored breathing. A patient’s respirations are quick and shallow, with a rate of 40 breaths per minute. The character of a patient’s respirations is noisy, and it sounds like fluid is in the airway. The patient’s skin, nail beds, and mouth are bluish in color. A patient has normal respirations when sitting up, but experiences difficulty breathing when lying down.
The first two descriptions suggest the abnormal breathing pattern of "dyspnea" (difficult and labored breathing), while the third description indicates the abnormal breathing pattern of "stridor" (noisy breathing with the sound of fluid in the airway). The fourth description suggests the abnormal breathing pattern of "orthopnea" (normal breathing when sitting up, but difficulty breathing when lying down).
Dyspnea is a type of abnormal breathing pattern that is characterized by difficulty and labored breathing. This may be due to a variety of underlying conditions, such as lung disease, heart failure, or anxiety.
Quick and shallow breathing, with a rate of 40 breaths per minute, may also indicate dyspnea. This type of breathing pattern may be seen in patients with respiratory distress or other conditions that affect the lungs or airways.
Stridor is a type of abnormal breathing pattern that is characterized by a noisy sound in the airway, which may be due to obstruction or inflammation. It is often described as a high-pitched or harsh sound and may be accompanied by bluish discoloration of the skin, nail beds, and mouth, which suggests a lack of oxygen in the body.
Orthopnea is a type of abnormal breathing pattern that is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying down. This may be due to heart failure, lung disease, or other conditions that affect the respiratory system.
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how many bones does an adult have. how many bones does a baby/toddler have
I need help with this
The correct matching with the terms and definitions above are as follows:
Definition: Prepare for a return shot by getting ready into position. Term: Defensive tactic for a net/wall game. A - C.Definition: Strike object to an open space.Term: Offensive tactics for an invasion game. B - ADefinition: Play between opponents and goal. Term: Defensive tactics for an invasion game. C - BDefinition: Give and go. Term: defensive tactic for net/wall game. D - DWhat is meant by a defensive tactic?This refers to a system or a way of defending one self from an attack in a game which requires one to position well to avoid being attacked.
So therefore, a defensive tacticis way of guarding in games.
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When a woman experiences menopause A.she has equal amounts of androgen and estrogen B.estrogen becomes more dominant C. all hormone production ceases D.androgen becomes more dominant
Answer:
Answer Below----Please Mark Me Brainliest!!!
Explanation:
It should be C but if your unsure, look at this article:
https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/15224-menopause-perimenopause-and-postmenopause
The Cleveland Clinic is top notch in research, so it is a reliable source.
Hope this helps!
When passing the soccer ball, what part of the foot do you use? *
O Top/Laces
O Heel
O Toes
O Inner side
Answer:
Inner Side
Explanation:
how many calories in a starbucks venti pumpkin spice latte hot
Answer:
470
Explanation:
though fungi and viruses are not affected by antibiotics, they can still develop resistance to the drug that treats them
True or false?
Though fungi and viruses are not affected by antibiotics, they can still develop resistance to the drug that treats them. The given statement is true.
In other words, antimicrobial resistance occurs when bacteria or fungi are no longer able to respond to drugs that are specifically designed to kill these microorganisms. This means that these microorganisms will not be killed and will continue to proliferate. This does not mean that our bodies are immune to antibiotics or antifungals. This is a natural process.
AMR (or antimicrobial resistance) is a term used to describe a condition in which a group of microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, become resistant to drugs over a long period of time. This makes the treatment of infections more difficult and increases the likelihood of disease transmission, severe disease, and mortality.
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identify three strategies that can be used to control your emotions.
As a medical assistant, you see ms. Smith leave the office in tears, stating that she has no idea what dr. Olsen just told her, but she guesses everything is okay. You know that in the past ms. Smith has been unhappy with her medical treatment and has threatened to sue dr. Olsen. What steps should you take at this point? what can you say to ms. Smith to reassure her?.
Setting the stage for productive dialogue with the patient is the action I need to take at this point. She doesn't know what Dr. Olsen told her, according to what Mrs. Smith has indicated.
The task of educating her would fall to me. This refers to both the actual circumstance and the method of therapy. I would enquire about her worries regarding her health. Any information she provides will be noted down and given to the doctor. If she already has a prescription from the doctor, I might help her by going through it with her and outlining the adjustments she needs to make. The absence of communication between the doctor and his patient is demonstrated by this.
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The sideways curvature of the back, know as ______, is usually curved in an "S" or "C" shape only increases over time
A) torque
B) lumbar
C) scoliosis
D) posture
Question 5
A weight loss product manufacturer altered the images of their before-and-after photos on their
website to make the weight loss effects appear even more dramatic than their real-life results. What
does this MOST accurately demonstrate?
O negative body image
O self-perception
false advertising
self-discipline
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Answer: c. false advertising
Which of the following statements is true?
More than 50 chemicals in tobacco are known to cause cancer.
Eating disorders are more common in boys than in girls.
Liver scarring is a serious health issue caused by bulimia.
Smoking causes lung cancer, but it does not harm other body organs.
Answer:
I'm pretty sure the answer is A.
Explanation:
Hope this helps
Answer:
i think maybe the first or the second one
Which is appropriate for the nurse to include in a plan for the prevention of pressure ulcers?
The nurse should include the following in the plan for the prevention of pressure ulcers: regular skin assessments and a repositioning schedule.
Regular skin assessments are crucial to detect early signs of pressure ulcers and initiate prompt intervention. By regularly inspecting the client's skin, the nurse can identify areas of redness, irritation, or breakdown, allowing for timely preventive measures.
Implementing a repositioning schedule is essential to relieve pressure on vulnerable areas. By repositioning the client at regular intervals, typically every two hours, the nurse can distribute pressure more evenly and reduce the risk of prolonged tissue ischemia, thus preventing pressure ulcers from developing.
Other important considerations in the prevention plan include optimizing support surfaces, promoting good nutrition and hydration, providing meticulous skin care, and educating the client and caregivers about pressure ulcer prevention. These measures further enhance skin health and minimize the risk of pressure ulcers.
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How can u keep your body healthy?
You have to run, eat, drink, and eat healthy fruit
explain how excitatory postsynaptic potentials (epsps) can cause an action potential. include the type of receptors and neurotransmitters involved and action potential threshold value.
Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) occur when neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, triggering a change in the cell membrane potential.
These receptors, called ionotropic receptors, are usually glutamate receptors, which cause the influx of positively charged ions, such as sodium and potassium, into the cell.
This influx of ions causes the membrane potential to become more positive, or depolarize, relative to the resting potential of the neuron. If the EPSP is strong enough, it can cause the membrane potential to reach the action potential threshold and trigger an action potential.
The action potential threshold is the minimum membrane potential required to trigger an action potential, which is usually around -55mV. Therefore, EPSPs are necessary to reach the action potential threshold and initiate an action potential.
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Marion loves eating at food establishments that provide a
wide display of food which she can walk around and serve
for herself. What kind of food establishment does Marion
like?
(1 point)
casual dining
fast food
O fine-dining
buffets
Question 2 of 10 Which of these is an uncontrollable risk factors for disease? A. Hygiene B. Nutrition O C. Poverty OD. Insect bites
Answer: Most likely D.
Explanation: I kinda feel weird about this question because sometimes you can't control poverty but the answer they are looking for is probably insect bites
What are allergies?.....
Answer: Symptoms that include sneezing, runny nose, red, watering eyes, vomiting, diarrhea, rashes, and itching.
how to can you prevent allergies? stay away from what you allergies don't get to closer to whatever u have the allergie to
brainliest pls
Answer:
Alergias.
Explanation:
Las alergias son reacciones que el sistema inmunológico ante ciertas sustancias para las cuales el organismo no sabe cómo tratar. Dichas reacciones pueden llegar a ser severas e incluso mortales.
Which patient would benefit from ECG monitoring due to an electrolyte imbalance?A)HypokalemiaHypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so ECG monitoring is an important intervention.B)HypocalcemiaLow serum calcium levels can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias.C)HypomagnesemiaLow serum magnesium can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias.
Patient would benefit from ECG monitoring due to an electrolyte imbalance who is suffering from Hypokalemia - Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so ECG monitoring is an important intervention. hence option (A) is correct.
All three patients with electrolyte imbalances (hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, and hypomagnesemia) may benefit from ECG monitoring. However, hypokalemia is particularly concerning as it can lead to more severe and potentially life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia can also lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, but the risk is generally not as high as with hypokalemia. Ultimately, the decision to monitor a patient's ECG will depend on the severity and clinical context of the electrolyte imbalance, as well as the individual patient's medical history and other risk factors. Therefore, ECG monitoring is important as it can help detect these changes early and provide treatment before complications arise. On the other hand, hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia are not typically associated with cardiac dysrhythmias, so ECG monitoring is not usually recommended for these conditions.
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CAN SOMEONE HELP WITH QUESTION 1 AND 2
Answer:
vincent should think from his parents shoes they are trying to protect him after slamming the door vincent should calm down and think and apologize to his parents the parents should let him go and set a curfew and tell him to have his cellphone on and respond when he needs to also i think a reliable person should be there and vincent if he really wants to go he should make a agreement he gets in touble there should be reasonable consequenses
in my opinon vincent should go and if he gets in trouble he should bear all consequnces there is a saying you either learn the easy way or the hard way also i am not a parent
if the relationship is worth it they should set schedules and try to manage their time will should try to understand the girl and the girl with the boy
this is just my opinon the activites is important for my future and education i will choose it over the boy education fist then him
which ever is more beneficial
Explanation:
that's my answer to you and i hope you understan what i'm saying here ok
1. A researcher conducts a prospective cohort study to determine if there is a difference in CABG (Coronary Artery Bypass Graft) mortality between Hospital A and Hospital B.
Table 1 is shown below:
Hospital A Hospital B
n = 1,000 n = 1,000
% Females 30 50
% With Low LVEF 30 50
Average Age 62 62
It has been definitively determined from several studies that sex is not an independent risk factor for CABG mortality while a low left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) and age over 60 are independent risk factors for CABG mortality.
To avoid confounding when reporting the relative risk of Hospital A vs. Hospital B, the researcher must:
a.) adjust for sex and low LVEF
b.) adjust for age only
c.) adjust for sex only
d.) adjust for low LVEF only
e.) adjust for sex, low LVEF and age
The researcher should take into account age, low LVEF, and gender when reporting the relative risk for hospital A versus hospital B (choice E) to prevent confounding.
Correcting only for sex may not fully account for the potential confounding effect because sex is not a stand-alone risk factor for CABG mortality. Controlling for age alone could not address the confounding effects of sex and low LVEF.
In this case age over 60 years and low LVEF have also been found to be independent risk factors for CABG death. Therefore, the researcher should take into account possible differences in sex, poor LVEF and age in his analysis to make an accurate comparison of mortality rates between Hospital A and Hospital B. By controlling for the effect of these established risk factors, this would aid in identifying the exact effect of hospitalizations on CABG mortality.
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Dr. Duran, an I-O psychologist, found that as job satisfaction increases, employee
absenteeism decreases. This is an example of a ____________ relationship.
The given statement which mentions that "Dr. Duran, an I-O psychologist, found that as job satisfaction increases, employee absenteeism decreases" is an example of a negative correlation relationship.
Correlation is a statistical relationship between two or more variables. A correlation between variables suggests that a connection exists between them. In simple words, correlation is the degree to which two or more quantities are related or the relationship between variables.The given statement suggests that as the job satisfaction of the employees increases, their absenteeism will decrease. Hence, this is an example of a negative correlation. If one variable increases and the other decreases, this is a negative correlation relationship.
final exam multiple choice: please select the correct answer from the options listed below. 1. What are the two important parts of physical fitness program? A. Skill-related and health-related B. Physical-related and mental-related C. Heart-related and skeletal-related D. Cardio-related and strength-related 2. If your training program is focused on improving how well your heart and lungs work together to supply oxygen your body during exercise, what health related factor are you targeting?A. CoordinationB. Cardiovascular efficiencyC. Muscular strengthD. Agility3. A ____________ resting heart rate indicates a strong, high level of cardiovascular health.A.) HighB.) LowC.) 180 bpmD.)150 bpm4. Which statement below best describes the factors that should be considered before starting a new training program?A.) Present fitness level, present health, medical history, and previous fitness programsB.) Weight training, endurance training, and cardiovascular workC.) Present fitness level, affordability, hiring a personal trainer, joining a gymD.)Present health, medical history, present fitness level and appropriate attire
Answer:
i'm not sure if i'm true. i'm sorry if i get you wrong
Explanation:
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. D
What information did you find most interesting/useful about the levels of intensity in exercise?
Answer:
workout
Explanation:
thethe American Heart association are generally recommend a target heart rate of moderate exercise intensity 50% to about 70% of your maximum heart rate vigorous exercise intensity 70% to about 85% of your maximum heart rate
Is there a significant need for affordable housing association of Nova Scotia?
Answer:
yes there is a significant because significant because it can provide up to 95 percent loan-to-value financing to community housing
Explanation:
hop this help's