1. Discuss why it is essential to provide health and safety learning experiences
during a child's early years.
2. Explain why learning experiences must be evaluated continuously and not only
after the lesson has ended. How can this information be used to improve future
lessons?
3. What are the pros and cons of including families in children's health and safety
education?
4. Explain how programs and schools benefit from investing in in-service training
for teachers.
5. Discuss how teachers can determine if health and safety resource materials are
reliable?
6. List health, safety, nutrition topics that are appropriate for toddlers,
preschoolers, and school-aged children? Make sure you clarify which topics are
appropriate for each specific age group.
7. What guidelines should be followed when planning for health, safety, and
nutrition activities?

Answers

Answer 1
How many points for this question
Answer 2

Evidence suggests that early experiences are crucial to a child's healthy growth and capacity for lifetime learning. Future cognitive, social, emotional, linguistic, and physical development is influenced by how a kid develops throughout this period, which in turn affects preparedness for school and eventual success in life.

What is healthy development?Children of all abilities, including those with special health care needs, can grow up in environments where their social, emotional, and educational needs are met. It is critical to have a safe and loving home and to spend time with family playing, singing, reading, and talking. Social and emotional development refers to how children learn about themselves, what they are feeling, and what to expect when interacting with others. It is the growth of the ability to form and maintain positive relationships. Emotions must be felt, managed, and expressed.

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Related Questions

Describe the effect of a depressant on the central nervous system

Answers

Answer: It is slowing down the brain activity

Explanation:

Depressants have the job to lower blood pressure, slow down brain activity, and in that way they can produce relaxation feelings which are calming the person down and many people are sleepy because of that.

Depressants are increasing the production of GABA neurotransmitters because of that there is happening slowing down and relaxation of the body.

A nurse is reviewing complications of pregnancy with a client who is 31-weeks pregnant. Identify three (3) complications to discuss with the client that should be reported.

Answers

It is important for the client to be aware of and report any signs of preterm labor, gestational hypertension/pre-eclampsia, and decreased fetal movement.

Prompt reporting of these complications allows for timely evaluation and appropriate interventions to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

As a nurse reviewing complications of pregnancy with a client who is 31-weeks pregnant, there are three important complications that should be discussed and reported.

1. Preterm Labor: Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular contractions and cervical changes before the 37th week of pregnancy. It can lead to premature birth, which poses risks for the baby's health and development. Signs of preterm labor include regular contractions, pelvic pressure, backache, abdominal cramps, and vaginal bleeding.

2. Gestational Hypertension/Pre-eclampsia: Gestational hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure that develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can progress to pre-eclampsia, a more severe condition marked by high blood pressure and organ damage.

3. Decreased Fetal Movement: A decrease in fetal movement can indicate potential problems with the baby's health. While it's normal for fetal movement patterns to change as the pregnancy progresses, a significant decrease or absence of movement should be reported.

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Olympics project for health: what events were there and locations and dates

Answers

Events : Pentathlon, running, jumping, Discus throw, wrestling, boxing, pankration, and Equestrian event. Etc
Locations/ dates: 1896 Athens Greece, 1900 Paris, France, 1908 London, England, 1912 Scotland Sweden. 1916 Cancelled (WWl -Berlin had been awarded)

1. Sport

2. Components of fitness

3. One component to be tested

4. Fitness test

Answers

What is your question?
What’s the question?

1234 question.

Breifly explain the 3 trimesters of pregnancy, discuss a few major developmental
milestones that occur in each trimester.
^^^ITS FOR A MIDTERM DUE IN 30 PLEASE HELP!!!

Answers

First Trimester: Months 1-3
1. Heart, brain, and lungs form (1st month)
2. Arms, fingers, and legs form and heart starts beating (2nd month)
3. Fetus can move around (3rd month)
Second Trimester: Months 4-6
1. Facial features form (4th month)
2. Eyelashes and nails form, heartbeat is heard (5th month)
3. Fetus can kick, open, close its mouth and swallow and hears sounds (6th month)
Third Trimester: Months 7-9
1. Arms and legs can move freely, eyes open (7th month)
2. Hair becomes longer (8th month)
3. Body organs have developed the ability to function on their own (9th month)

What should Joe do next? Call 911. Do compressions. Do compressions while calling 911. Do gentle rescue breathing while calling 911.

Answers

Do compression on joe
Do compressions until 911 arrives

Describe Two external factors that may influence a person’s decision to become bulimic

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Causes and Risk Factors of Bulimia Nervosa

Social isolation.

Change in mood or personality.

Refusing to eat in front of people.

Constantly talking about weight or food.

Impulsive behaviors.

Excessive or new substance or alcohol use.

Striving for perfectionism.

Intense fear of weight gain

A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. What clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis?

Answers

There are several possible reasons for the patient's altered mental status, including hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, and other metabolic disturbances, as well as central nervous system (CNS) disorders.

Hypoglycemia is the most likely diagnosis, particularly in diabetic patients who are receiving insulin therapy. Hypoglycemia, a condition caused by low blood sugar, is one of the most common metabolic emergencies seen in both diabetic and non-diabetic patients.The most common symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, irritability, diaphoresis, headache, and blurred vision. Because the patient in this situation is unable to communicate, these symptoms may not be present. Signs of hypoglycemia are characterized by the body's compensatory mechanisms, which are aimed at restoring blood glucose levels to normal. This would include tachycardia, tremors, pallor, and diaphoresis. Hypotension and tachypnea can occur as the hypoglycemia worsens.In conclusion, Hypoglycemia, which is characterized by signs and symptoms such as tachycardia, tremors, pallor, diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachypnea, is the most common cause of altered mental status in diabetic patients receiving insulin therapy.

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Aidan has a wound with a scab. The area underneath the scab is pink. What is most likely occurring to Aidan's wound?

Answers

infection is the answer

Answer: B. Granulation tissue has formed under the scab and appears pink because of the tiny blood vessels.

Explanation: plato

advice friends who are in an abusive relationship and why they should leave it​

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

They wont listen even if you give them reason sorry

In the digestive system, food that has been completely processed is found
A. in the liver
B in the esophagus
C. in the large intestines
D in the small intestines

Answers

I think it’s b or d but I’m sorry if I’m wrong I’m like 50%right

Answer:

D

Explanation:

IT will go in small intestines.

In addition to soil and air, what else can land pollution affect?

drop-off centers

recycling

household garbage

groundwater

Answers

Answer:

groundwater

Explanation:

i took the test

Answer: The answer is D Groundwater

Explanation: I took the test and it was right

Hope this helps

The langelier index is used to determine the point if stablity of

Answers

The Langelier index is a calculation used to determine the point of stability of water, specifically the tendency of the water to either dissolve or precipitate minerals.

The index takes into account several factors such as pH, temperature, alkalinity, and calcium concentration. A positive Langelier index indicates that the water is in a state of supersaturation, which means that it has a tendency to deposit minerals and become cloudy or develop scale. A negative Langelier index indicates that the water is undersaturated and has a tendency to dissolve minerals, leading to corrosion.

By using the Langelier index, water treatment professionals can determine the stability of the water and make adjustments to ensure it remains in a balanced state.


Hi! The Langelier Saturation Index (LSI) is a calculation used to determine the stability of water by considering its pH, temperature, alkalinity, and hardness. A positive LSI value indicates that the water is oversaturated and may cause scale formation, while a negative value signifies undersaturated water, which could lead to corrosion. An LSI value close to zero indicates stable water with a balanced saturation level, minimizing the risk of scaling or corrosion.

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1. Determine which management task belongs to which part of the management cycle. /4
A) Decision making
B) Controlling
C) Planning
D) Directing

Answers

The management cycle includes four primary tasks or functions. Planning, organizing, directing, and controlling are the four primary management functions, which are also known as the management cycle or management process. Each of the four functions is carried out at various levels of management in an organization.

Management cycle:

The following is the allocation of each management task to the management cycle: Planning is the first and foremost management function, and it includes establishing objectives and goals, developing policies, procedures, rules, and regulations, and designing strategies to accomplish the goals. Determining the approach to directing or leading the business or organization in the right direction is called directing, the second phase in the management cycle. Managers are required to assign work responsibilities to their subordinates and motivate them to achieve the goals. Managers must have excellent communication skills to direct their employees. Controlling is the third phase of the management cycle, in which management evaluates performance, monitors adherence to plans, and takes corrective action when necessary. Managers are in charge of ensuring that all activities are completed as planned and that everyone is working in a coordinated manner. When performance or output does not meet expectations, managers must take corrective action. Decision-making, the fourth and final phase of the management cycle, refers to the process of evaluating options and choosing the best course of action based on the facts and data available to the organization or the manager. The decision-making process must be transparent and fair to everyone involved in the process.

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draw diagram of plant and animal cell​

Answers

Here’s a hand drawing of it!
draw diagram of plant and animal cell

Regular exercise often leads to an improved quality of life. please select the best answer from the choices provided. t f

Answers

Answer:

It's true, Just took the test

According to medicine, 20 minutes of exercise each day is all that is needed to strengthen the immune system. Exercise benefits us by triggering the sympathetic nervous system, which helps elevate our blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration.

What are the results of regular exercise?

One of the most crucial things you can do for your health is engaging in regular physical activity.

Physical activity is good for your bones and muscles, your brain, your weight, your risk of disease, your capacity to carry out daily tasks, and your ability to manage your weight.

Changes in white blood cells and antibodies are brought on by exercise (WBC). The immune cells that combat sickness in the body are called WBCs.

Therefore, it is true that Regular exercise often leads to an improved quality of life.

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Why do fractures need to be treated immediately by a medical professional? A. Bones need to be set before the healing process may begin. B. Bones need to be set immediately, before they begin to heal, or they may heal crooked. C. Unless bones are set immediately, the healing process can take years to complete. D. Unless bones are set immediately the fracture will result in abnormal bone growths.

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

If not set properly it could heal crooked

Answer:

B or the 2 choice

Explanation:

through constant comparison, the researcher compares emerging concepts in qualitative research to analyze data for the best emergent fit. true or false

Answers

True. Through constant comparison, a researcher compares emerging concepts in qualitative research to analyze data for the best emergent fit. This is a commonly used method in qualitative research for data analysis.

Research is a systematic and methodical investigation aimed at discovering new knowledge, generating new ideas, or testing existing theories. Research is conducted across various disciplines and industries, including science, social sciences, humanities, and business. It involves the collection and analysis of data, information, and evidence to answer specific questions or solve problems. Research can be both qualitative and quantitative, using various methodologies such as surveys, experiments, case studies, and observational studies. The results of research are used to inform decision-making, advance knowledge and understanding, and improve processes and outcomes in various fields.

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Except for ______, all of the following are similar in how they are absorbed and transported in the body. Question 16 options: vitamin B6 vitamin D vitamin A vitamin K

Answers

Answer: vitamin K

Explanation:

Vitamin D, B6 and vitamin A are having similar absorption in the human body and also they are similary transported in the body.

At the other side, vitamin K is absorbed by enterocytes of the small inestine. When it comes to this vitamin, there are dietary fats that are enhancing absorption of this vitamin.

Some bacteria can synthesize vitamin K2, but not vitamin K1.

Answer:

Vitamin B6

Explanation:

Just took the test for James Madison High School, checked my text book and I was right. :)

Which of the following is the frequency of colorblind women and colorblind men in the population, respectively?

Answers

The frequency of colorblind women in the population is 0.5%, while the frequency of colorblind men in the population is 8%.

This is because color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait, which means that it is carried on the X chromosome. Women have two X chromosomes, so they need to inherit two copies of the color blindness gene in order to be colorblind.

Men only have one X chromosome, so they only need to inherit one copy of the color blindness gene in order to be colorblind.

Therefore, the frequency of colorblind women is much lower than the frequency of colorblind men. For every 1 colorblind woman, there are about 16 colorblind men.

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your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:

In the U.S population, the frequency of the allele for colorblindness, Xc< is 8%. What is the frequency of colorblind women and colorblind men in the population, respectively?

Liaisoisisiwosksjjjsisisskkdowkakssl

Answers

Answer:

The most well-known meaning of contact is an individual who lays out correspondence between various gatherings. For instance, two organizations cooperating could recruit a contact to assist with working with participation between their gatherings.

For instance, a singular filling in as an inn chief ends up having a capability that requires additional cooks. The chief then calls three of their previous partners filling in as the need might have arisen, which is a demonstration of contact.

Explanation:

A contact official is an individual who acts to orchestrate and help cooperation between parties, particularly in an authority limit as their work. The word contact has numerous implications. Most by and large, it alludes to an in such individual collaboration, or to correspondence, connection, or a gathering between parties.Connection or collaboration between individuals or associations. association. affiliation. participation. connection.The abilities of a contact official incorporate compromise, correspondence, and critical thinking abilities. These three abilities are fundamental for the contact official to really finish their work. Contact officials as a rule work in quick moving conditions that depend vigorously on correspondence.To turn into a Contact OfficialYou want an elevated degree of correspondence expertise to function as a Contact Official. Formal capabilities may be helpful yet aren't fundamental. Professional Instruction and Preparing (VET) and college are both normal review pathways.

Discuss the measurement, pros, and cons of quality through
patient satisfaction. Reflect on the perspective of the patient,
the provider, and health systems.

Answers

Patient satisfaction is a measure of how satisfied patients are with their healthcare experience. It is a common method used by healthcare providers to assess the quality of care provided to patients.

The measurement of patient satisfaction is based on patient feedback and can be gathered through surveys or other feedback mechanisms.

There are several pros to using patient satisfaction as a measure of quality in healthcare. Firstly, patient satisfaction is a widely accepted and recognized measure of quality in healthcare. It reflects the patient's perspective on the care they received, which is important for ensuring that patients receive high-quality care.

Secondly, patient satisfaction can be used to identify areas for improvement in healthcare delivery. Healthcare providers can use patient feedback to make changes to their processes and procedures to improve the quality of care they provide.

However, there are also some cons to using patient satisfaction as a measure of quality. Firstly, patient satisfaction can be influenced by factors outside of the healthcare provider's control, such as the patient's expectations or the patient's health status.

This means that patient satisfaction may not always reflect the quality of care provided. Secondly, patient satisfaction can be influenced by factors such as the provider's personality or communication skills, rather than the quality of care provided. This means that patient satisfaction may not always reflect the quality of care provided by individual healthcare providers.

From the perspective of the patient, patient satisfaction is important because it reflects the patient's experience with the healthcare system. Patients want to feel that they are receiving high-quality care and that their needs are being met. Patient satisfaction can also be a reflection of the patient's health status, as patients who are satisfied with their care are more likely to follow through with their treatment plans and have better health outcomes.

From the perspective of the provider, patient satisfaction is important because it reflects the quality of care provided. Providers want to ensure that they are providing high-quality care that meets the needs of their patients. Patient satisfaction can also be used as a tool to improve the quality of care provided, by identifying areas for improvement and making changes to processes and procedures.

From the perspective of the health system, patient satisfaction is important because it reflects the overall quality of care provided. Health systems want to ensure that they are providing high-quality care that meets the needs of their patients. Patient satisfaction can also be used as a tool to measure the effectiveness of healthcare delivery and to identify areas for improvement.

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Which reproductive specialists undergo the greatest amount of preparatory education?
Hindistand

Answers

Answer:licensed practical nurses and nurse practitioners

or advanced practice registered nurses and nurse practitioners

Explanation:i think this is right

Green revolution agriculture uses genetically modified crops that are less productive and more resistant to pests. Which part of this statement is false? O Green revolution agriculture uses GMOs. O Green revolution is a form of agriculture. O GMOs are more resistant to pests. O GMOs are less productive crops.

Answers

The statement Green revolution agriculture uses genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is false because it included conventional breeding techniques instead of genetic engineering procedures (Option 1).

What was the Green revolution?

The Green revolution was a process for the obtention of high yield varieties in wheat and rice during the 1960s, which included both breeding conventional techniques and the use of fertilizers.

The green revolution help to calm hunger around the world and it was based on the introgression of reduced height alleles in crops.

In conclusion, The statement Green revolution agriculture uses genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is false because it included conventional breeding techniques instead of genetic engineering procedures (Option 1).

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According to the segment, which of the following affects the way individuals learn, work and build relationships?

Answers

Explanation:

tools, processes and techniques that make tasks possible or more efficient in terms of ... Technology can fix technical problems ... Which of the following concepts is associated with technological development being ...

Treating our mind and body as independent entities seems especially inappropriate to those who take a ________ approach to therapy.
a. biopsychosocial
b. classical conditioning
c. psychoanalytic
d. client-centered

Answers

The appropriate approach to therapy that challenges the notion of treating the mind and body as independent entities is a biopsychosocial approach to therapy.

a. Biopsychosocial: The biopsychosocial approach recognizes that an individual's well-being is influenced by biological, psychological, and social factors. It acknowledges the interconnectedness of these aspects and emphasizes the importance of considering all three in understanding and addressing mental health issues. This approach considers the biological processes, psychological experiences, and social context that contribute to a person's overall well-being and seeks to integrate these factors in treatment.

b. Classical conditioning: Classical conditioning is a type of learning where an individual learns to associate a neutral stimulus with a response through repeated pairings. While classical conditioning can be relevant in therapy, it does not specifically challenge the notion of treating the mind and body as independent entities.

c. Psychoanalytic: The psychoanalytic approach to therapy, developed by Sigmund Freud, focuses on exploring the unconscious mind and its influence on behavior and mental processes. While the psychoanalytic approach recognizes the complex interplay between psychological factors, it may not directly challenge the notion of treating the mind and body as separate entities.

d. Client-centered: The client-centered approach, developed by Carl Rogers, emphasizes the importance of empathy, unconditional positive regard, and genuineness in the therapeutic relationship. While this approach considers the psychological experiences of the individual, it may not explicitly address the mind-body connection or challenge the idea of treating them as separate entities.

Therefore, the most appropriate option that challenges the notion of treating the mind and body as independent entities is the biopsychosocial approach (option a).

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Explain why the scenario below fails to comply with guidelines for ethical treatment of students by a yoga instructor
Situation: Kayla is a yoga instructor and she has
student who is going through a difficult time in her personal life.
Kayla: "Why don't we go out for tea after class and you can tell me more about this problem."
Student: "That would be great. Thanks."

Answers

Because, a yoga instructor is meant to work the body and calm the mind, and is not a licensed therapist. it would be against the rules of the company to go outside of the studio with a student and discuss personal matters.

A slice of peach pie supplies 357 calories with 48 units of vitamin a; one large peach provides 42 calories and 53 units of vitamin a. this is an example of:________

Answers

A slice of peach pie supplies 357 calories with 48 units of vitamin a; one large peach provides 42 calories and 53 units of vitamin a. this is an example of nutrient density.

The nutrient density of a food is the ratio of beneficial ingredients to the food's energy content for the amount that is commonly consumed.

A high score is a tip-off that the food contains more beneficial nutrients compared to calories.

Studies show that nutrient density is an accurate predictor of healthy diets. Nutrient density is the CDC’s effort to define “powerhouse” fruits and vegetables.

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Serena works 24 hours per week. her benefits are prorated at 60% of that of a full-time employee. full time employees receive 3.7 hours of vacation time per pay period. how much vacation time should serena receive per pay period?

Answers

The response is 222 hours

The vacation time should serena receive per pay period is the 222. Serena works 24 hours per week. her benefits are prorated at 60% of that of a full-time employee. full time employees receive 3.7 hours of vacation time per pay period.

What is labor cost?

The increase labor cost that differs with the hours worked, there is no effect on the quasi cost. In this example stated, the benefits will be given to the part time workers, but in the proportion or respect to the  number pf hours worked or input.

Labor cost per hour will increase and Furthermore, this cost is not is not on the basis of employment, but rather on the basis of hours worked, so the quasi fixed cost is not affected on the long run. Serena works 24 hours per week. her benefits are prorated at 60% of that of a full-time employee. full time employees receive 3.7 hours of vacation time per pay period.

Therefore, The vacation time should serena receive per pay period is the 222. Serena works 24 hours per week. her benefits are prorated at 60% of that of a full-time employee. full time employees receive 3.7 hours of vacation time per pay period.

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Your patient has a pathology affecting the depolarization of his ventricles, therefore you're looking for a change in what portion of his EKG?O QRS complexO ventricles beat slowerO DHP calcium channels to open

Answers

If the patient has a pathology affecting the depolarization of his ventricles, this means that there is an issue with the electrical activity of the heart.

Specifically, there may be a problem with the conduction of electrical impulses through the ventricles.

The QRS complex on an EKG represents the depolarization of the ventricles, so this is the portion of the EKG that you would be looking for changes in.



If there is an issue with the depolarization of the ventricles, the QRS complex may be wider or narrower than normal. This could indicate a variety of conditions, such as a bundle branch block or ventricular tachycardia.

Additionally, the ventricles may beat slower or faster than normal, depending on the specific condition affecting the depolarization.



DHP calcium channels are involved in the contraction of the heart muscle, so they would not directly impact the depolarization of the ventricles.

However, they may be involved in certain conditions that affect the electrical activity of the heart, such as long QT syndrome.


Overall, if a patient has a pathology affecting the depolarization of his ventricles, it is important to carefully examine the QRS complex on their EKG and consider additional diagnostic tests to determine the underlying cause of the issue.

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imagine that you are comparing the nutrient content of phloem sap from three plants: one with root nodules, one with mycorrhizae, and one with neither (bare-root). which of the three phloem samples would you expect to have the highest phosphorus content? Proteins are made of amino acids thatare in a specific sequence that isdetermined by... Evaluate the expression when a=-5 and c=3.a-5c What is the role of manganese dioxide in the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory? mountaintop removal is a controversial form of coal strip mining. classify each of the following characteristics of mountaintop removal as either a positive benefit or an environmental problem. sometimes it is not possible to measure the success of a ads campaign that is aggregated across multiple channels, as is the case with measuring brand awareness and brand favorability. why is it difficult to determine performance across multiple channels? A shell explodes into two fragments, one fragment 25 times heavier than the other. If any gas from the explosion has negligible mass, then the momentum change of the heavier fragment is 25 times as great as them fragment. the momentum change of the lighter fragment is 25 times as great as the momentum ct of the fragment. the kinetic energy change of the heavier fragment is 25 times as great as the kinetic energ lighter fragment hea the kinetic energy change of the lighter fragment is 25 times as great as the kinetic energy change heavier fragment the momentum change of the lighter fragment is exactly the same as the momentum change of the heavier fragment What are the 4 most common reasons for appeal? Draw an angle in standard position with each given measure. Then find the values of the cosine and sine of the angle.7 / 6 if the haploid number of a species is 14, how many chromatids will there be in metaphase i in a dividing diploid cell? [ Brainliest + 14 points ]What health-related physical fitness components should be included in a plan to improve fitness, health, and wellness? There are 6 correct choices in the list below. The European Union and continent of Africa share some concerns with the growth of the private security industries in these regions. What is that common issue or concern? A. Financial Limitations B. Human Rights C. Excessive licensing of companies and personnel D. Their militaristic and mercenary-related activities Which quotation from the United States Constitution includes an example of the separation of powers What is the slope intercept form for a line that passes through (-1,1) and (2,-11) please someone help me to prove this... Eva imagines herself giving and completing her speech successfully. what unstated assumption can we make about eva Which of these is an example of someone using the process of synthesis?A. A scientist attempting to determine why sprinkling salt on an icy road makes the ice meltsB. a parent deciding what kind of punishment to give to a disobedient childC.a judge deciding what penalty to give a convicted criminalD. a historian writing a book about a series of different disasters that all hit the same city Find all real $x$ that satisfy $$(2^x - 4)^3 (4^x - 2)^3 = (4^x 2^x - 6)^3. $$ An acceleration of +3.5 m/s results when two forces act on an object. The firstforce is 100 N to the right and the second force is 40 N to the right. (A) What isthe net force on the object? (B) What is the object's mass? Two fair dice are rolled. Determine the following probabilityP(one number is a multiple of 3 and the other is a multiple of 5)The probability that one number is a multiple of 3 and the other is a multiple of 5 is